CRP - I X 2020 th

5 Edition FIFTEEN PREVIOUS YEAR SOLVED PAPERS (Pre + Main) RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CRP RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CRP RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CRP RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CRP RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CRP RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CRP RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CWE RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CWE RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CWE RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CWE RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CWE RRB OFFICER SCALE - I CWE Aryavart Gramin Bank Officer Sarva UP Gramin Bank Officer Gurgaon Gramin Bank Officer

IX 2019 IX 2019 VII 2018 VII 2018 VI 2017 VI 2017 V 2016 V 2016 IV III II I Exam Exam Exam -

MAIN PRE MAIN PRE MAIN PRE MAIN PRE 2015 2014 2013 2012 2011 2010 2009

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by EDURISE Subject Matter Experts

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IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I CRP – IX 2020 Price: Rs325/- ( Rupees Three Hundred Twenty Five only ) Fifth Edition: 2020

INDEX PREVIOUS YEAR SOLVED PAPER 1.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, PRE EXAM

2019

N.1 – N.7

2.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, MAIN EXAM

2019

O.1 – O.19

3.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, PRE EXAM

2018

L.1 – L.9

4.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, MAIN EXAM

2018

M.1 – M.18

5.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, MAIN EXAM

2017

J.1 – J.18

6.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, PRE EXAM

2017

K.1 – K.8

7.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, MAIN EXAM

2016

A.1 – A.18

8.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, PRE EXAM

2016

B.1 – B.9

9.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, EXAM

2015

C.1 – C.17

10.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, EXAM

2014

D.1 – D.16

11.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, EXAM

2013

E.1 – E.15

12.) IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE – I, EXAM

2012

F.1 – F.15

13.) GRAMIN BANK OF ARYAVART OFFICER EXAM

2011

G.1 – G.14

14.) SARVA UP GRAMIN BANK OFFICER EXAM

2010

H.1 – H.15

15.) GURGAON GRAMIN BANK OFFICER EXAM

2009

I.1 – I.15

PRACTICE PAPER PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION 14.) PRACTICE PAPER PRELIMENARY – 1

PP.1 – PP.8

15.) PRACTICE PAPER PRELIMENARY – 2

PP.9 – PP.16

16.) PRACTICE PAPER PRELIMENARY – 3

PP.17 – PP.24

17.) PRACTICE PAPER PRELIMENARY – 4

PP.25 – PP.32

18.) PRACTICE PAPER PRELIMENARY – 5

PP.33 – PP.39

IBPS RRB CRP – VIII GROUP-“A” OFFICER SCALE – I 2020 EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION i. Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent. Preference will be given to the candidates having degree in Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy. ii. Proficiency in local language as prescribed by the participating RRB/s* iii. Working knowledge of Computer. *Proficiency in local language – For recruitment of Officer Scale I & Office Assistant (Multipurpose), proficiency in local language as specified below shall be an essential qualification:Candidates who have already studied the language of the State in standard VIII or any level above standard VIII in Government recognized Boards of Education/ School or having any certificate to the effect for standard VIII or any level above standard VIII would be considered proficient in that local language.

Where the candidate does not meet the aforesaid requirement in local language at the time of selection, he will be given a time of six months from the date of joining to acquire the proficiency. This period can be extended by the Boards of RRBs within the framework of the rules and provided that such extension should not be beyond the probation period.

ONLINE EXAMINATION STRUCTURE PRELIMENARY EXAM Medium of Max Sr. No. Name of tests No. of Qs Exam Marks 1 Reasoning Hindi/English 40 40 2 Quantitative Aptitude Hindi/English 40 40 Total 80 80

Duration Composite time of 45

ONLINE EXAMINATION STRUCTURE MAIN EXAM

Sr. No

Name of Tests

1 2 3 4a 4b 5

Reasoning Quantitative Aptitude General Awareness English Language Hindi Language Computer Knowledge TOTAL

Medium of No. of Max. Exam Questions Marks Hindi/English 40 50 Hindi/English 40 50 Hindi/English 40 40 English 40 40 Hindi 40 40 Hindi/English 40 20 200 200

Duration

Composite Time of 2 hours

VACANCY DETAILS

Total Indicative Vacancies of Year

2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020

SC 59 807 821 527 502 578

ST 20 483 407 283 275 312

OBC 60 1510 1393 1171 893 975

EWS 0 0 0 0 384 360

GENERAL 157 2739 2601 1769 1390 1562

IBPS RRB OFFICER 2019

IBPS RRB CRP – VIII OFFICER SCALE – I 2019 PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION REASONING

Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: M, T, D, F, H, R and W are seven students studying in three different colleges I, II and III with at least two in each college. Each of them has a favourite subject from - English, History, Geography, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology, not necessarily in the same order. D's favourite .subject is Physics and studies in college II with only M. H does not study in college III and he likes English. F studies in college III and does not like Mathematics. Those who like Geography and Chemistry study in the same college. W likes Biology and does not study in college I. R does not study with H. R does not like Chemistry. M does not like History. 1. What is M's favourite subject? (1) Geography (2) Mathematics (3) Chemistry (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Sol (2) Student College Subject D II Physics M II Mathematics H I English F III Chemistry W III Biology R III Geography T I History 2. Which of the following combinations is correct? (1) I - M - Mathematics (2) III - F - Chemistry (3) III - F - Physics (4) III - F - History (5) None of these Sol (2) 3. Which of the following groups of students study in college I? (1) HF (2) HR (3) TR (4) HT (5) None of these Sol (4) 4. Which of the following groups of students study in college III? (1) FWR (2) FM (3) FTR (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Sol (1) 5. What is T’s favourite subject? (1) Biology (2) Mathematics (3) Chemistry (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Sol (5) Directions (Q. 6 – 10): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions. Seven plays - A, B, C, D, E, F and G- are to be held on seven consecutive days (starting on Monday and ending on Sunday) not necessarily in the same order. Only one play will be held on one day. Only two plays will be held after play G. Only two plays will be held between play F and play G. Only three plays

N.1

will be held between play B and play E. Play B will not be held on Sunday. Play A will be held before play D and play C (not necessarily immediately before). Play C will be held after play D (not necessarily immediately after). 6. Play D will be held on which day? (1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday (5) Saturday Sol (4) 7. Which play will be held immediately after play C? (1) Play E (2) Play F (3) Play B (4) Play G (5) None of these Sol (3) 8. Which play will be held on Monday? (1) Play F (2) Play B (3) Play E (4) Play D (5) Play A Sol (5) 9. If all the seven plays are held in the alphabetical order of their names starting on Monday and ending on Sunday, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original schedule? (1) Three (2) More than three (3) One (4) None (5) Two Sol (5) 10. Play F is related to Monday in a certain way, based on the given schedule. Similarly, play G is related to Thursday. In the same way, play B is related to which of the following days? (1) Wednesday (2) Friday (3) Tuesday (4) Saturday (5) Sunday Sol (3) plays are performed due day after given day. Directions (Q. 11 – 15): Study the following information carefully and answer the given question. Eight friends E, F, G, H, S, T, U and V are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square table while four sit in middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. S is an immediate neighbour of both E and V. S sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table. Only one person sits between E and H.T sits second to the right of U. U is not an immediate neighbour of E.F is not an immediate neighbour of G.G faces a direction opposite to that of U. (i.e., If U faces the centre then G faces outside and vice-versa). Solutions (11 – 15):

11. How many people sit between F and G when counted from the right side of F ? (1) three (2) four (3) two (4) none (5) one

N.2

Sol (2) 12. Which of the following is true regarding F? (1) Only three people sit between F and H (2) F sits in middle of one of the sides (3) F sits second to right of U (4) None of the given options is true (5) Both S and G are immediate neighbours of F Sol (2) 13. Who sits to immediate right of H? (1) U (2) S (3) G (4) F (5) T Sol (5) 14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) H (2) V (3) G (4) T (5) E Sol (4) 15. What is the position of U with respect to E ? (1) Third to the right (2) Fifth to the right (3) Second to the left (4) Fourth to the left (5) Second to the right Sol (2) Directions (Q. 16 – 20): These questions are based on the following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions. Ten members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are split into two teams X and Y of 5 members each. Members in the two teams are made to sit in two rows facing each other in such a way that one member of team X is sitting exactly opposite of a member in team Y. Members of team X are facing North. D is third to the right of A and sits exactly opposite of G. B sits to the immediate right of G and is facing South. H is third to the right of B and is exactly opposite of F. C sits between A and E and is opposite of I. 16. Who is second to the left of C? (1) F (2) A (3) B (4) D (5) None of these Sol (1) Team Y - H J I B C (Facing south) Team X - F A C E D (Facing North) 17. Which of the following group of persons sit in the same row? (1) HIE (2) ACB (3) GDI (4) HIG (5) None of these Sol (2) 18. Who is to the immediate right of B? (1) C (2) E (3) I (4) A (5) None of these Sol (3) 19. Who is to the immediate left of J? (1) H (2) C (3) E (4) B (5) None of these Sol (5) 20. Who sits exactly opposite of J? (1) H (2) A (3) F (4) C (5) None Sol (2) Directions (Q. 21 – 25): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

IBPS RRB OFFICER P4D%I9KF1J3#T6@AQ2Z©5★7EW$8BH 21. Which of the following is the seventh to the right of the sixteenth from the right end of the above arrangement? (1) 5 (2) 1 (3) 7 (4) K (5) None of these Sol (1) 7th to the right 16th from the right end means 9th from the right i.e., 5. 22. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a symbol? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three Sol (3) Number Consonant Symbol Such combinations are 4D% 2Z© 23. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of sixth to the right of K? (1) 3 (2) T (3) 2 (4) Q (5) None of these Sol (4) 4th to the right of 6th to the right of K means 10th to the right of K, i.e., Q. 24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) 9FI (2) Z52 (3)7W ★ (4) W78 (5) @Q6 Sol (4)

All are +2,-3 W78 is -2,+4 25. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the fifteenth from the left end? (1) T (2) Q (3) 6 (4) Z (5) None of these Sol (5) According to question, the new sequence would be P4DI9KFIJ3T6#AQ2 Z57EW8BH Directions (Q. 26 – 30): In these questions, relationships between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Mark answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows (2) if only Conclusion II follows (3) if either Conclusion I or II follows (4) if neither Conclusion 1 nor II follows (5) if both Conclusions I and II follow 26. Statement: A ≤ F ≥ T = E ≤ R Conclusions: I. A < F II. R > F Sol (4) A ≤ F ≥ T = E ≤ R I. A < F : Does not follow II. R ≥ F : Does not follow

IBPS RRB OFFICER 2019

27. Statement: R ≥ I < G ≤ H > T Conclusions: I. T < I II. H > I Sol (2) R ≥ I < G ≤ H > T I. T < I : Does not follow II. H > I : follows 28. Statement: T = A ≤ K > E = S Conclusions: I. K ≥ T II. S < K Sol (2) T = A ≤ K > E = S I. K ≥ T : follows II. S < K: follows 29. Statement: P < O = I ≤ N > T Conclusions: I. P < N II. O >T Sol (1) P < O = I ≤ N > T I. P < N: follows II. O > T: Does not follow 30. Statement: D > E ≥ L > A ≥ Y Conclusions: I. Y ≤ D II. A ≥ E Sol (4) D > E ≥ L > A ≥ Y I. Y ≤ D : Does not follow II. A ≥ E : Does not follow Directions (Q. 31 – 33): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions. A is mother of B. B is sister of C. D is son of C. E is brother of D. F is mother of E. G is granddaughter of A. H has only two children- B and C. 31. How is F related to H? (1) Son-in-law (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Father-in-law (3) Granddaughter (5) Cannot be determined Sol (2) 32. How is C related to E? (1) Father (2) Son (3) Mother (4) Cousin brother (5) Cannot be determined Sol (1) 33. Who is mother of G? (1) G (2) B (3) F (4) Either B or F (5) Either C or F Sol (2) Directions (Q. 34 – 38): In these questions, certain symbols have been used to indicate relationships between elements as follows: A % B means A is neither smaller than nor greater than B A $ B means A is greater than B A ★ B means A is either greater than or equal to B. A @ B means A is smaller than B. A# B means A is either smaller than or equal to B. In each question, three statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion (s) is/are definitely true. Mark answer (1) if only conclusion I is true. Mark answer (2) if only conclusion II is true. Mark answer (3) if either conclusion I or II is true. Mark answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true. Mark answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true. 34. Statements: P ★ Q Q$R Q%S Conclusions: I. P@S II. R@P Sol (2) Statements: P ≥ Q

N.3

Q>R Q= S Hence, P ≥ Q =S >R Conclusions: I. P < S (Not True) II. R < P (True) 35. Statements: F ★ G G%H H$K Conclusions: I. H @ F II. F% H Sol (3) Statements: F ≥ G G=H H>K Hence, F ≥ G = H > K Conclusions: I. H < F (Not True) II. F = H (Not True) H is either smaller than or equal to F. 36. Statements: T#V V$X X ★Y Conclusions: I. V$Y II. X # T Sol (1) Statements: T ≤ V V>X X≥Y Hence, T ≤ V > X ≥ Y Conclusions: I. V > Y (True) II. X ≤ T (Not True) 37. Statements: C % E E#W W@Z Conclusions: I. W ★ C II. C@Z Sol (5) Statements: C = E E≤W W P Conclusions: I. L ≤ N (Not True) II. M ≥ P (Not True) 39. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three Sol (4) U N W A N T E D 40. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 45321897 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement? (1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 3 (5) None of these Sol (3) According to question, 1 8 9 7 4 5 3 2

N.4

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Directions (Q. 41 – 45): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series? 41. 3 5 7 ? 13 17 19 23 (1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 8 (4) 10 (5) None of these Sol (2) 3 5 7 11 13 17 19 23 42. 2 5 8 11 14 17 20 23 ? (1) 24 (2) 27 (3) 4 (4) 29 (5) None of these Sol (5) 2 + 3 = 5; 5 + 3 = 8; 8 + 3 = 11; 11 + 3 = 14 14 + 3 = 17; 17 + 3 = 20; 20 + 3 =23 23 + 3 = 26 43. 2 4 12 48 ? (1) 240 (2) 192 (3) 144 (4) 288 (5) None of these Sol (1) 2 × 1 = 2; 2 × 2 = 4; 4 × 3 = 12; 12 × 4 = 48 48 × 5 = 240 44. 150 152 149 153 148 154 ? (1) 155 (2) 152 (3) 147 (4) 149 (5) None of these Sol (3) 150, 150  2 , 152  3 , 149  4 , 153  5,

148  6 , 154  7 147 

45. 1 ? 9 16 25 (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) None of these Sol (4) 12 = 1; 22 = 4 ; 32 = 9; 42 = 16; 52 = 25 Directions (Q. 46 – 50): Solve the equation and answer according to following order: (1) If x < y (2) If x > y (3) If x > y (4) If x < y (5) If x = y 46. I. 2 x2 13x  21  0 II.2 y 2  7 y  3  0 0  2 x  x  3  7  x  3   0 Sol (4) I. 2 x2  6 x  7 x  21 

  2 x  7  x  3  0

 x  3,

7 2

II. 2 y 2  7 y  3  0  2 y 2  6 y  y  3  0

2 y  y  3  1 y  3 0   2 y  1 y  3 0

3, y

x  y

1 2

 2 x  x  7   3  x  7  0   2 x  3 x  7  0 3 2 II. 15 y  56  0 x  7,

 y  y  7   8  y  7  0   y  8 y  7  0 y2  7 y  8 y   56 0

47. I. x  12 x  35  0

II.6 y  11y  3  0 2

2

2

Sol (2) I. x  12 x  35  0  x  5x  7 x  35  0  x  x  5  7  x  5  0   x  7  x  5  0 x  7, 5

II. 6y2  11y  3  0  6 y 2  9 y  2 y  3  0

 3 y  2 y  3  1 2 y  3 0  3 y  1 2 y  3 0 x  y

0 48. I. 2 x2 17 x  21 

II. y 2  5 y  56  0

0  2 x2  14x  3x  21  0 Sol (5) I. 2 x2  17 x  21 

  y 7, 8

49. I. x  2 x  8  0

x  y

II.2 y  15 y  28  0 2

2

Sol (1) I. x  2 x  8  0  x2  4 x  2 x  8  0  x  x  4  2  x  4  0 2

  x  2 x  4  0

 x  2,  4

II. 2 y  15 y  28 0  2 y 2  8 y  7 y  28 0 2

 2 y  y  4  7  y  4  0   2 y  7  y  4  0 y

7 2

,4

50. I. x 

x  y

1 9

Sol (4) I. x

II.9 y 2  6 y  1  0 1 1 1  , 9 3 3

II. 9 y 2  6 y  1 0

  3 y  1  0 2

 y

1 1

,

3 3

x  y Direction (Q. 51 – 55): The following questions contain one question followed by two statements. Read the questions carefully and decide how many of the statement is/are necessary to answer the question. Answer according to the following codes(1) If the data in I alone are sufficient to answer the question. (2) If the data in II alone are sufficient to answer the question. (3) If the data in either I or II are sufficient to answer the question. (4) If both together are not sufficient to answer the question. (5) If both are required to answer the question. 51. What is the area of a right angled triangle? I. Perimeter of the triangle in 48 cm. II. Ratio between height and base of triangle is 4 : 3. Sol (5) h 

2

1 3 y  ,  3 2

IBPS RRB OFFICER

 4 x    3x  2

2

 5x

4 x  3x  5 x  48 48 1  4, h  20, b  12, h  16  A   b  h 12 2 52. What will be the sum of two numbers? I. Ratio between the greater number and smaller number is 12:5. II. The difference between them is 28. Sol (5) (I) Greater No. = x, smaller No. = y x 12    x  12 y 0 ...........  i  y 5 x 

28  II  x  y 

.............  ii 

IBPS RRB OFFICER 2019

On solving (i) and (ii), we will get the value of x and y. 53. How much profit an organisation earned in 1995? I. The organisation earned 30% more profit than in 1993. II. The organisation earned 40% more profit than in 1994. Sol (4) 54. In how many days 10 men and 5 women can do a piece of work? I. 5 men can do the same work in 20 days. II. 10 women can do the same work in 15 days. Sol (5) From both statement efficiency of 1 man and 1 woman can be known. From this we can easily find out the required number of days. 55. How much marks did Shyam scored in Hindi? I. He scored 15 marks more in History than Geography. II. He scored 20 marks more in Hindi than Geography. Sol (4) Directions (Q. 56 – 60): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions: Number of Articles (in thousands) Manufactured (M) and Defective (D) by 5 units of a company over the years UNIT

I

Year

II

III

IV

V

M

D

M

D

M

D

M

D

M

D

1996

53

21

45

12

76

38

56

21

46

18

1997

49

18

32

10

45

24

63

24

36

14

1998

50

18

48

18

55

16

68

30

34

15

1999

65

20

68

15

57

20

54

19

48

12

2000

70

31

72

13

82

22

48

27

58

10

2001

44

15

56

22

38

32

40

15

60

11

56. What is the average number of defective items from Unit II for the given years? (1) 21,500 (2) 17,000 (3) 12,500 (4) 15,000 (5) None of these Sol (4) The required average number of defective items 12  10  18  15  13  22 form unit II  1000  15000 6 57. What is the ratio of the total number of articles manufac -tured by Unit III to that by Unit V for all the years together? (1) 353: 282 (2) 282: 353 (3) 457: 215 (4) 215: 457 (5) None of these 76  45  55  57  82  38 Sol (1) The required ratio  46  36  34  48  58  60 353   353 : 282 282 58. What was the percentage (rounded off to nearest integer) of defective articles with respect to the number of articles manufactured by all the units together in the year2001? (1) 42 (2) 40 (3) 37 (4) 33 (5) None of these (15  22  32  15  11) Sol (2) The required percent  (44  56  38  40  60)



95 100  40% 238

N.5

59. During which year was the percentage increase/decrease in manufacture from the previous year the highest for Unit I? (1) 1998 (2) 2001 (3) 1999 (4) 1997 (5) None of these Sol (2) For unit I Year Per cent change in manufactured units from previous year (approx.) 1997 -7.54% 1998 +2% 1999 +30% 2000 +7.7% 2001 -37.14% 60. During which year was the largest percentage of articles defective out of the articles manufactured by Unit IV? (1) 1996 (2) 1997 (3) 1998 (4) 1999 (5) 2000 Sol (5) For unit IV Year Per cent of defective items (approx.) 1996 37.5% 1997 38.09% 1998 44.12% 1999 35.18% 2000 56.25% 2001 37.5% Directions (Q. 61 – 6 5): Study the graph and answer the questions that follow: Number of Candidates (in Thousands) Qualified in the Written Test for Admission to two Different Institutions

61. What was the respective ratio between the number of candidates qualified in the written test in the year 2002 for admission in institution B and the number of candidates qualified in the written test in the year 2006 for admission to institution A ? (1) 8 : 5 (2) 7 : 4 (3) 7 : 8 (4) 7 : 5 (5) 8 : 7 Sol (3) ratio = 3500 : 4000 = 7: 8 62. What was the approximate average number of candidates qualified in the written test for admission to institution B over all the years ? (1) 4,555 (2) 4,200 (3) 4,160 (4) 4,888 (5) 4,667 Sol (5) Average number of candidates Qualified in institute B

N.6  3.5  4  4  5.5  5  6    thousand = 4.667×1000 = 4667 6   63. In which year was the total number of candidates qualified in the written test for admission to both the institutions together the second highest? (1) 2003 (2) 2004 (3) 2005 (4) 2006 (5) 2007 Sol (3) Number of candidates qualified in the year 2005 =11.5 thousand 64. What is the difference between, the total number of candidates qualified in written test in year 2006 for admission to institution A and B together and the number of candidates qualified in written test in year 2003 for admission to institution A ? (1) 5,000 (2) 3,500 (3) 1,500 (4) 5,500 (5) None of these Sol (4) Required difference   4  5  3.5 thousand =5500

65. What was the total number of candidates qualified in the written test for admission to institution A over all the years together ? (1) 27,000 (2) 26,500 (3) 26,000 (4) 27,500 (5) None of these Sol (1) Required number of candidates in institute A  (2+3.5+5+6+4+6.5) thousand = 27000 66. On children’s day sweets were to be equally distributed among 300 children. But on that particular day 50 children remained absent. Hence each" child got one sweet extra. How many sweets were distributed? (1)1450 (2) 1700 (3)1500 (4) 1650 (5) Cannot be determined Sol (3) Let the number of sweets distributed = 300x, then, 300 – 50 = 250, 250x + 250 = 300x or 5x = 250 or x = 5 Hence, required number of sweets distributed = 300 × 5 = 1500 67. Three women and 18 children together take two days to complete a piece of work. How many days will nine children alone take to complete the piece of work if six women alone can complete the piece of work in three days? (1) Nine (2) Seven (3) Five (4) six (5) None of these Sol (4) 6 women in 3 days = 1 work 1 1 1 women in 1 day   work 6  3 18 3 2 1 3 women in 2 days   work 18 3 Now, 3 women and 18 children in 2 days = 1work 1 2 18 children in 2 days  1   work 3 3 2 1 child in one day = work 3 18  2 9 1 9 children in 1 day = = work 3 18 6 Hence required no. of days = 6 days

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68. A man riding a bicycle completes one lap of a circular field along its circumference at the speed of 14.4 km/hr in 1 minute 28 seconds. What is the area of the field? (l) 7958 sq mt (2)9856 sq mt (3) 8842 sq mt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these 1000 Sol (2) 14.4km / h  14.4  4m / s 3600 Total time = 60 +28 = 88 sec Total distance = 4 × 88 = 352 m Thus, circumference  2 r  352 352  7 r   56m 22  2 22 Now, Area of circle   r 2   562  9856m2 7 69. What is the difference between the compound interest and simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.16,200 at the end of three years at the rate of 25%? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal.) (1) Rs. 3213.44 (2) Rs.3302.42 (3) Rs.3495.28 (4) Rs. 3290.63 (5) None of these 3 T     25  R  Sol (4) CI  P 1    1  16200 1    1  100    100   3  5    16200    1  15440.625  4  

Pr t 16200  25  3   12150 100 100 Difference = 3290.625 70. Nandita scored 80% marks in five subjects together viz Hindi, Science, Maths, English and Sanskrit, wherein the maximum marks of each subject were 105. How many marks did Nandita score in Science if she scored 89 marks in Hindi, 92 marks in Sanskrit, 98 marks in Maths and 81 marks in English? (1) 60 (2) 75 (3) 65 (4) 70 (5) None of these 80 Sol (1) Total marks scored by Nandita  525   420 100 Thus, Science’s score  420  89  92  98  81  60 SI 

71. In a sale, perfumes are available at a discount of 25% on the selling price. If a perfume costs Rs.5,895 in the sale, what is the selling price of the perfume ? (1) Rs. 6,020 (2) Rs.7,860 (3) Rs.7,680 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Sol (2) Let the SP of perfume be Rs x and discount be 25%, x  75 Thus, 75% of x  5895 or  5895 100 5985 100 x  7860 75 72. While withdrawing an amount of Rs. 49,350 a customer by mistake collects Rs. 48,150. The remaining amount is deposited back to his account by the bank, which shows the balance of Rs.25,376. What will be the customer's balance after depositing the remaining amount ?

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(1) Rs.26,576 (2) Rs.26,676 (3) Rs.26,586 (4) Rs.26,686 (5) None of these Sol (1) Balance Amount   49350  48150   25376  26576 73. The cost of pure milk is Rs 16 per litre. On adding water, the mixture is sold at Rs 15 per litre. In this way, the milkman earns 25% profit. What is the ratio of milk and water in the mixture? (1) 25:7 (2) 7:25 (3) 15:1 (4) 1:15 (5) None of these Sol (5) Milk : water = 1 : x Total quantity = (x+1) liters C.P. = Rs16, S.P. = Rs (x+1)15 Profit = Rs [(x+1)15 – 16] = Rs (15x – 1) Profit 15 x  1 Profit%  100% or 25  100 C.P. 16 25 16 1  15 x  1 or 15 x  5 or x  100 3 1 Required ratio = 1 : =3:1 3 74. The ratio of monthly salaries of two persons, A and B is 8 : 7. If the salary of A is increased by 20% and that of B by 11%, the new ratio becomes 96 : 77. What is A’s salary? (l) Rs 800 (2) Rs 700 (3) Rs750 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these Sol (4) Let A’s and B’s salary be 8x and 7x respectively.  8 x 120  After respective increases, A’s salary     9.6 x  100   7 x 110  and B’s salary     7.7 x  100  A 9.6 x 96 Thus,  Hence cannot be determined.  B 7.7 x 77 75. 456  24  38  958  364  ? (1) 228 (2) 124 (3) 128 (4) 138 (5) 145 456  38  958  364  722  958  364  128 Sol (3) ?  24 76. A started a business with Rs. 40,000. After two months, B joined him with Rs. 60,000. C joined after some time with Rs. 1,20,000. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of Rs. 3,75,000. C gets Rs. 1,50,000 as his share. How many months after B joined the business, did C join ? (1) 4 months (2) 5 months (3) 6 months (4) 7 months (5) 3 months Sol (1) Let C joined the business x months after B, then, A’s investment = 40000×12 B’s investment = 60000×10 C’s investment = 120000×(12 – (x + 2)) = 120000 (10 – x) Ratio of profit = 480000 : 600000 : 120000 (10 – x) = 4 : 5 : (10 – x)

Thus,

10  x 

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 375000  150000 4  5  10  t 10  x  19  x 10  x  19  x  or  150000 375000 150 375 50  5 x  38  2 x or 3x  12 or x  4months 77. The sum of the present ages of a mother and a daughter is 54 years and difference between their present ages is 30 years. What is the respective ratio between the ages of mother and daughter after 8 years ? (1) 5: 3 (2) 7: 3 (3) 3: 1 (4) 2: 1 (5) 5:2 Sol (5) Let the present age of mother and daughter be x and y years respectively, then, x  y  54 ......(i) and x  y  30 ......(ii) Solving we get, x  42 and y  12 42  8 50 5   12  8 20 2 78. A 160 m long train running at a speed of 90 km/h crosses a platform in 18 s. What is the length of the platform in metre? (1) 210 (2) 240 (3) 290 (4) 310 (5) None of these 5 Sol (3) Speed of train  90 m s  90   25 m s 18 Let length of platform be x m, then, x  160  18; x  16 x  450 or x  290m 25 79. A person cover 32km downstream in 240 minutes and same person cover 48 km upstream in 1440 minutes. Then find the rate of current? (1) 4kmph (2) 5kmph (3) 3kmph (4) 2kmph (5) None of these Sol (c) Let speed of person be x kmph and speed of current be y kmph  x + y = 8 and x – y = 2  x = 5 kmph and y = 3 kmph 80. A dishonest vendor professes to sell fruits at the cost price but he uses a weight of 800 grams in lieu of 1 kg weight. Find his percentage gain. (a) 22% (b) 24% (c) 25% (d) 30% (e) 20% 200 Sol (c) % gain  100  25% 800 Thus, ratio after 8 years 

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IBPS RRB CRP – VIII OFFICER SCALE – I 2019 MAIN EXAMINATION REASONING

Directions (Q. 1 – 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a straight line facing north at equal distances but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is a different professional viz, Actor, Reporter, Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer, Teacher and Painter but not necessarily in the same order. G is standing at the fifth position to the left of C. Reporter is standing at the third position to the right of G. F is standing at the fifth position to the right of A. E is standing second to the left of B. Engineer is standing at the second position to the left of D. Three persons are sitting between Engineer and Painter. Doctor is to the immediate left of Engineer. Lawyer is to the immediate right of teacher. Solutions (1 – 5)

1. How many persons are there to the left of Reporter? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three Sol (5) 2. Which of the following pairs of persons are sitting at the extreme ends? (1) A and Actor (2) Engineer and C (3) Doctor and F (4) F and Lawyer (5) Teacher and Doctor Sol (1) 3. Who among the following is sitting exactly in the middle of the row? (1) Doctor (2) F (3) Lawyer (4) B (5) Teacher Sol (3) 4. Who among the following is sitting second to the right of Teacher? (1) Painter (2) B (3) A (4) Actor (5) Lawyer Sol (2) 5. Who among the following are the immediate neighbours of Painter? (1) Actor and Teacher (2) B and Lawyer (3) B and Engineer (4) Reporter and C (5) Doctor and Lawyer Sol (4) Directions (Q. 6 – 10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are kept in the stack one above another which has eight racks numbered 1-8. The bottom most rack is numbered 1, the one above is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost rack is numbered 8. The boxes were in different colours namely Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red and White but not necessarily in the

same order. Each box consists of different number of balls, which is either prime or square number between 10 to 55. Two boxes are kept between box E and the Yellow colored box, which is kept at one of the odd numbered rack but not in the bottom most rack. Yellow coloured box is kept below the box E. There are 20 balls difference between the boxes are kept at the rack 5 and rack 2, which has the square number of balls. Three boxes are kept between the box F and the Red coloured box, which is kept immediately above the box which has the balls in multiple of 12. The box F is kept in one of the even numbered rack, Two boxes are kept between Red coloured box and box A. Box A is kept immediately above the box which contains square number of balls in odd number. The White coloured box is kept immediately below the box B. As many boxes are kept below the White coloured box is same as above the box C. The White coloured box has only four balls less than the box which has maximum number of ball. H has the maximum number of balls. The orange coloured box has 10 balls less than box A and kept in one of the even numbered racks. The Blue coloured box is immediately above the Violet colourd box. As many boxes kept between box H and orange coloured box is same as between box B and the Green coloured box. The difference between the balls in the Yellow coloured box and box D is equal to the number of balls in the box C. Box D is kept above the box which contains 47 balls. Solutions (6 – 10): Rack Box Colour Balls 8 H Red 53 7 C Indigo 36 6 E Orange 19 5 A Blue 29 4 F Violet 25 3 B Yellow 13 2 D White 49 1 G Green 47 6. How many boxes are kept between box D and the Red coloured box ? (1) Three (2) Two (3) Four (4) Five (5) One Sol (4) 7. Which of the following boxes has the lowest number of balls? (1) The Orange coloured box. (2) A (3) The Yellow coloured box (4) G (5) The Violet coloured box. Sol (3) 8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following one that does not belong to the group? (1) The violet coloured box (2) Box G (3) The blue coloured box (4) Box D (5) the Indigo coloured box Sol (1)

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9. If Violet is related to 19 and White is related to 25 in a certain way. Then, Blue is related to which of the following? (1) 31 (2) 36 (3) 17 (4) 47 (5) 49 Sol (2) 10. What is the difference between the number of balls in box D and Indigo coloured box? (1) 36 (2) 26 (3) 13 (4) 14 (5) 22 Sol (3) Directions (Q. 11 – 15): Read the given information and answer the following questions: There are six Doctors - Neeraj, Mohit, Puran, Rinki, Pankaj and Rajeev from six different hospitals - Fortis, Medanta, Apollo, Batra, Max healthcare and Columbia Asia are attending a seminar in Delhi. They are staying in three different hotels of Delhi. At least two Doctor's are staying at the same hotels. Each of them is a specialist in different fields Paediatrics, Radiology, Oncology, Neurology, Pathology and Orthopaedics. Neeraj stays in Taj hotel and he is from Medanta but he is neither Radiologist nor Oncologist. Pankaj is from Fortis and he is Orthopaedician. He does not stay with Puran. Rinki stays with the doctor from Batra. One of the doctors who stay in Oberoi hotel is a Radiologist. Mohit is not from Apollo and Columbia Asia and he is Neurologist. One of the doctors who stay in Radisson hotel is a Pathologist. Rajeev is neither from max healthcare nor from Columbia Asia. Oncologist and Orthopaedician do not stay in Taj hotel. Doctors from Fortis and Apollo stay together. The Neurologist stays in Taj hotel. The doctor who is Orthopaedics stays at Oberoi hotel. Solutions (11 – 15): Neeraj → Taj - Medanta - Paediatric Pankaj → Oberoi - Fortis - Orthopaedics Rajeev → Oberoi - Apollo - Radiologist Mohit → Taj - Max - Neurologist Puran → Radisson - Batra - Pathology / Oncologist Rinki → Radisson - Columbia - Asia-Pathology / Oncologist 11. Who stays in Radisson hotel ? (1) Neeraj - Puran (2) Rinki - Rajeev (3) Puran - Rinki (4) Pankaj - Puran (5) None of these Sol (3) 12. Who is Paediatrician ? (1) Rajiv (2) Pankaj (3) Mohit (4) Neeraj (5) None of these Sol (4) 13. Who stays with Rajeev ? (1) Neeraj (2) Puran (3) Rinki (4) Mohit (5) Pankaj Sol (5) 14. Which hospital does Puran belong to ? (1) Batra (2) Max healthcare (3) Fortis (4) Columbia Asia (5) Medanta Sol (1) 15. In which hotel does Mohit stay ? (1) Taj (2) Oberoi (3) Radisson (4) Can't be determined (5) None of these

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Sol (1) Directions (Q. 16 – 17): In these questions, relationship between elements is shown in the Statements. The Statements are followed by Conclusions I & II. Give answer: (1) if only Conclusion I is true. (2) if only Conclusion II is true. (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true. (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true. (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true. 16. Statements: L < U, U > G, G ≥ S Conclusions: I. L > S II. G < L Sol (4) L < U ....(i); U > G ....(ii); G ≥ S ...(iii) Combining (ii) and (iii), we get U > G ≥ S ....(iv) Now from (i) and (iv), we do not get any specific relation between L and S. Hence conclusion I (L > S) is not true. On a similar basis conclusion II (G < L) is also not true. 17. Statements: A ≤ U, U = L, L < J Conclusions: I. J > A II. J > U Sol (5) A ≤ U ....(i), U = L ....(ii), J > L ...(iii) Combining (i), (ii) and (iii), we get J > U = L ≥ A  J > A and J > U. Hence, both the conclusions are true. Directions (Q. 18 – 20): In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even If they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow. 18. Statements: Some computers are televisions. Some televisions are radios. All radios are mobiles. Conclusions: I. No mobile is a computer. II. Some computers are mobiles. Sol (3)

Either conclusion I. or II. Follows 19. Statements: Some squares are circles. All circles are rectangles. Some rectangles are cones. Conclusions: I. Some cones are squares. II. Some squares are rectangles. Sol (2)

I. Does not follow II. Follows

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20. Statements: All letters are words. Some pages are words. All pages are books. Conclusions: I. Some words are books. II. Some pages are letters. Sol (1)

I. follows II. Does not follow 21. What should come next in the following letter series? P P O P O N P O N M P O N M L P O N M L (1) P (2) K (3) J (4) I (5) None of these Sol (2) P PO PON PONM PONML PONML K Directions (Q. 22 – 26): Given an input line the machine rearranges them step by step as per the illustration given below. Input Show must 73 85 go 69 on 32 Step I 32 show must 73 85 go 69 on Step II 32 go show must 73 85 69 on Step III 32 go 69 show must 73 85 on Step IV 32 go 69 must show 73 85 on Step V 32 go 69 must 73 show 85 on Step VI 32 go 69 must 73 on show 85 Step VII 32 go 69 must 73 on 85 show Step VII is the last step and the arrangement in Step VII is the final arrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. 22. If the third step of an input is “14 but 26 not just 63 fundamental 47” ; which of the following is definitely the input? (1) 26 14 but not just 63 fundamental 47 (2) 63 26 but 14 not just 63 fundamental 47 (3) fundamental 26 14 but not just 63 47 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of the above Sol (4) 23. First step of an input is “34 fire dress well 63 43 prime 52”. Which step is the last but one? (1) IV (2) III (3) VI (4) VII (5) V Sol (3) Step I 34 fire dress well 63 43 prime 52 Step II 34 dress fire well 63 43 prime 52 Step III 34 dress 43 fire well 63 prime 52 Step IV 34 dress 43 fire 52 well 63 prime Step V 34 dress 43 fire 52 prime well 63 Step VI 34 dress 43 fire 52 prime 63 well 24. What will be the fourth step for the following input? Input just in time for 36 48 14 59 (1) 14 for 36 in just time 48 59 (2) 14 for 36 just in time 48 59 (3) 14 for 36 in 48 just time 59 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of the above Sol (1) Input just in time for 36 48 14 59

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Step I 14 just in time for 36 48 59 Step II 14 for just in time 36 48 59 Step III 14 for 36 just in time 48 59 Step IV 14 for 36 in just time 48 59 25. If the second step of an input is “23 fine 49 sixty rely 38 56 next”, how many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement? (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 4 (5) None of these Sol (4) Step III 23 fine 38 49 sixty rely 56 next Step IV 23 fine 38 next 49 sixty rely 56 Step V 23 fine 38 next 49 rely sixty 56 Step V 23 fine 38 next 49 rely 56 sixty This is the last step. 26. If the second step for an input is “17 do foreign 95 74 heights mountain 29”, what will be the fifth step? (1) 17 do 29 foreign heights 74 95 mountain (2) 17 do 29 foreign 74 mountain heights 95 (3) 17 do 29 foreign 74 height 95 mountain (4) There will be no such step (5) None of the above Sol (3) Step III 17 do 29 foreign 95 74 heights mountain Step IV 17 do 29 foreign 74 95 heights mountain Step V 17 do 29 foreign 74 heights 95 mountain 27. A goes 100 m towards South. From there he moves 100 m towards his left and finally moves to a market in NorthEast direction. If market is in East of starting point. What is the distance between market and starting point? (1) 150 m (2) 175 m (3) 200 m (4) 192 m (4) Data inadequate Sol (3) According to the questions.

Here, AD = BD Hence, AD = 100 m BC = DE [ on forming parallelogram] Hence, DE = 100 m So, distance between A and E (market) = AD + DE = 100 + 100 = 200 m 28. A watch reads 4:30. If the minute hand points East, in which direction will the hour hand point? (1) South-East (2) North-East (3) North (4) North-West (5) None of these Sol (2) According to the question,

Hence, when the minute hand points to the East, hour hand points to the North-East direction. 29. Danyal walks 20 m towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 m. He again turns left and walks 20 m. Further,

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he moves 20 m after turning to the right. How far is he from his original position? (1) 20 m (2) 30 m (3) 50 m (4) 60 m (5) 40 m Sol (4) According to the question,

Hence, Danyal’s distance from his starting position. AD = CD = 40 m AE = (AD + DE) AE = (40 + 20) m = 60 m Directions (Q. 30 – 34): In each question below is given a statement followed by two Courses of action I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. on the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for the pursuing. Give answer, (1) If only I follows (2) If only II follows (3) If either I or II follows (4) If neither I or II follows (5) If both I and II follow 30. Statement: An increased number of credit/debit card forgery cases have been recorded recently. Courses of Action I. The banks should make stricter verification to ensure the access to credit/debit card by the authorized person. II. The banks should advise their customers to be more careful in dealing with the plastic money. Sol (1) I follows because an increased number of credit/debit and forgery have been recorded recently. Hence, the banks should make stricter verification to ensure the access to credit/debit by the authorised person. 31. Statement: Drinking and rave parties have become fashion among the present college youth which diverts from their studies. Courses of Action I. The State Government should make it a rule to disallow the students from entering Pubs and Bars. II. The parents as well as the colleges should impose strict discipline among the college going youth. Sol (5) Both I and II follows. In order to stop the present college youth from drinking and attending the rave parties the State Government, the parents as well as the college should impose strict discipline among them. 32. Statement: Increasing competition on various fronts is putting children and youth under tremendous pressure leading them to take extremely drastic steps. Courses of Action I. Children and youth along with their parents should be counselled for facing the competition in right spirit.

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II. Parents and teachers should be advised not to bring pressure children. Sol (1) I follows because in order to avoid pressure, children along with their parents should be counselled for facing the competition in right spirit. 33. Statement: Power cuts in most parts of the country has put the students in tremendous difficulty during examination time. Courses of Action I. Government should advise the public to make standby arrangements like generators and invertors. II. The parents of students should take out a morcha to the State Electricity Boards in protest against power cuts. Sol (4) Neither I nor II follows. 34. Statement: Increasing construction of residential towers in the city is hampering the infrastructural arrangements like water supply, sewage system etc. Courses of Action I. Municipal authorities in the city should not permit construction of towers unless adequate provisions for infrastructural facilities are made. II. Concerned authorities should take stringent action against those builders who are violating the rules. Sol (5) Both follows because both the courses of action are essential for increasing construction of residential towers in the city. 35. Nitin correctly remembers that Nidhi’s birthday is before Friday but after Tuesday. Derek correctly remembers that Nidhi’s birthday is after Wednesday but before Saturday. On which of the following days does Nidhi’s birthday definitely fall? (1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday (5) Cannot be determined Sol (4)

36. What should come next in the following letter series ? ZXVTRPNLJYWUSQO (1) M (2) K (3) H (4) J (5) None of these Sol (1) First, 8 even – positioned letters (z =26 ….) are written from the end of the alphabet. Next come the 8 odd – positioned ones (Y = 25, ….) 37. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) 78 (2) 48 (3) 72 (4) 54 (5) 42 Sol (1) If you subtract I, all others given a prime number. 38. Pointing to a woman, Nirmal said, “She is the daughter of my wife’s grandfather’s only child.” How is the woman related to Nirmal ? (1) Wife (2) Sister-in-law (3) Sister (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these Sol (1) Woman = daughter of Nirmal’s wife’s grandfather’s only child = dauhtger of Nirmal’s wife’s items. = Nirmal’s wife