R

POPULAR MASTER GUIDE

SSC

Staff Selection Commission

Constable (GD) CAPFs, NIA & SSF Rifleman (Assam Rifles)

Recruitment Exam LATEST EDITION

Detailed Study Material with Solved Previous Years' Papers &

1500+ MCQs

R. Gupta's®

Popular Master Guide

SSC

Staff Selection Commission

(GD) Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs), NIA, SSF & Rifleman (Assam Rifles)

Recruitment Exam by RPH Editorial Board

Published by O.P. Gupta for Ramesh Publishing House Admin. Office 12-H, New Daryaganj Road, Opp. Officers' Mess, New Delhi-110002  23261567, 23275224, 23275124 E-mail: [email protected] For Online Shopping: www.rameshpublishinghouse.com Showroom Balaji Market, Nai Sarak, Delhi-6  23253720, 23282525 4457, Nai Sarak, Delhi-6,  23918938 © Reserved with the Publisher No Part of this book may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical including photocopying, recording or by any transformation storage and retrieval system without written permission from the Publisher. Indemnification Clause: This book is being sold/distributed subject to the exclusive condition that neither the author nor the publishers, individually or collectively, shall be responsible to indemnify the buyer/user/possessor of this book beyond the selling price of this book for any reason under any circumstances. If you do not agree to it, please do not buy/accept/use/possess this book.

Book Code: R-1394 ISBN: 978-93-5012-093-4 HSN Code: 49011010 Price: ` 360

MODE OF SELECTION 1.

The recruitment process will consist of Computer Based Examination (CBE), Physical Efficiency Test (PET), Physical Standard Test (PST) and Medical Examination.

2.

All candidates whose online application are found to be in order will be called to appear in the Computer Based Examination. The Commission will conduct the examination for all candidates in Computer Based Mode only. Admit Cards for Computer Based Examination will be uploaded on the website of the concerned SSC Regional office.

3.

Computer Based Examination will be held in English & Hindi only.

4.

The number of candidates shortlisted for PET/PST on the basis of merit in the Computer Based Examination will be around 10 times of the number of vacancies.

SCHEME OF COMPUTER BASED EXAMINATION The Computer based examination will consist of one objective type paper containing 100 questions carrying 100 marks, with the following composition: Subject

Number of Questions

Maximum Marks

General Intelligence and Reasoning

25

25

General Knowledge and General Awareness

25

25

Part-C

Elementary Mathematics

25

25

Part-D

English/Hindi

25

25

Part-A Part-B

Note:



All questions will be of Objective Multiple Choice Type.



The computer based examination will be conducted in English and Hindi only.



The duration of test will be 90 minutes.

(iii)

CONTENTS Previous Previous Previous Previous Previous Previous

Year Year Year Year Year Year

Paper, Paper, Paper, Paper, Paper, Paper,

2021 ........................................................... 1-12 2019 ........................................................... 1-12 2015 ........................................................... 1-12 2013 ........................................................... 1-12 2012 ........................................................... 1-12 2011 ........................................................... 1-12

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING .......................... 1-120 Letter Series; Wrong Letter Series; Repeat Series; Number Series; Wrong Number Series; Word Analogy; Number Analogy; Odd One Out; Coding and Decoding; Statement Analysis; Place Arrangement; Direction Sense; Blood Relationships; Arranging in Order; Calendar, Clock & Time; Rows and Ranks; Common Property; Symbol Substitution; Missing Numbers; Matrices; Alphabet Problems; Logical Diagram; Syllogism; Venn Diagrams; Diagrammatic Puzzle; Non-Verbal Series; Non-Verbal Analogy; Odd Man Out; Completing an Incomplete Pattern; Spotting Hidden Pattern; Components of Figures; Lateral Inversion; Folded or Unfolded Pattern; Mirror Images.

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS............................................. 1-76 Numbers; HCF and LCM; Simplification; Surds and Indices; Ratio and Proportion; Partnership; Average; Profit and Loss; Simple and Compound Interest; Time and Work; Area and Perimeter; Volume and Surface Area; Data Interpretation.

ENGLISH ........................................................................... 1-48 Comprehension Passages; English Grammar; Sentence Completion; Spotting Errors; One Word Substitution; Spelling Errors.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE & GENERAL AWARENESS ............. 1-88 The Universe; World Geography; Our India; Indian History; Indian Constitution & Polity; Planning In India; National Symbols; General Science; Space Research; Computers; United Nations Organisation; First in India; Cultural Activities; Awards; Sports; National/International Days; Multiple Choice Questions. (iv)

1 Previous Paper (Solved)

SSC—Constable (GD) CAPFs, NIA, SSF and Rifleman (Assam Rifles) Recruitment Exam, 2021* Part-A : General Intelligence & Reasoning 6. Select the dice that can be formed by folding the given sheet along the lines.

1. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the letter-cluster that is different. B. OMK A. FDB D. USP C. JHF 2. In a certain code language, ‘MANGO’ is written as ‘QERKS’ and ‘APPLE’ is written as ‘ETTPI’. How will ‘GUAVA’ be written in that language? A. KYFXF B. KYGZE C. KYEZE D. KXEZE

A. Only B and D C. Only B

3. In a certain code language, GAME is written as TUZANOVW, and CAR is written as XYZAIJ. How will POST be written in that language? A. OQNPRTSV B. QRPQTUUV C. KLLMHIGH D. KLMNJKGH

7. Aditi is the daughter of Sanket. Vritti is the daughter of Ankit. Kriti is the mother of Mahi. Neeta is Sanket’s wife. Neeta is the motherin-law of Vritti’s mother Kriti. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? A. Ankit is the father of Mahi. B. Vritti is the sister of Mahi. C. Aditi is the daughter of Neeta. D. Kriti is the daughter of Sanket.

4. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 20 : 480 :: 25 : ? A. 700 C. 655

B. 725 D. 625

8. If ‘A’ denotes ‘addition’, ‘B’ denotes ‘multiplication’, ‘C’ denotes ‘subtraction’, and ‘D’ denotes ‘division’, then what will be the value of the following expression?

5. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

100 D (1 B 4) A 2 B (13 A 11) C 3 B (17 C 12) A. 52 B. 58 C. 49 D. 60

ZYGOTE : ZYTOGE :: SEQUENCE : ? A. USQNEEEC B. USQENCEE C. SUQNEEEC D. USNQEEEC * Exam held on 16-11-2021.

B. Only B, C and D D. Only A and C

1

(1909) SSC-Cons. GD-2021—1

(1909) SSC-Cons. GD-2021—1-II

2 9. Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the following classes. School, Teacher, Employee A.

B.

C.

D.

10. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 5, 9, 18, 34, ?, 95 A. 65 C. 63

B. 69 D. 59

11. Four number triads have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number triad that is different. B. (54, 73, 90) A. (46, 65, 82) D. (39, 48, 75) C. (21, 40, 57) 12. Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

A.

B.

C.

D.

13. Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary. 1. Dermatitis 2. Desistance 3. Derogation 4. Descendant 5. Dereliction A. 5, 4, 1, 3, 2 B. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 C. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4 D. 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

14. Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series. A __ A. B, B. B, C. A, D. B,

B __ A C, A, A, A, B, A, B, C, A, B, C, C,

B _ CA _ BB C A, B C, B B, A A, B

15. O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a row facing north. U is sitting to the immediate right of T. Q is sitting in between R and O. P, who is on the extreme right, is sitting to the immediate right of O. S is sitting to the immediate left of R. Who is sitting in the middle of the row? A. S B. R C. T D. Q 16. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements : Some cats are animals. All animals are plants. Conclusions : I. All cats are plants. II. Some plants are cats. III. Some plants are animals. IV. All animals are cats. A. Only conclusion I follows B. All the conclusions follow C. Only conclusions I, II and III follow D. Only conclusions II and III follow 17. Six friends are sitting in a straight line. E 4th from the right. E is between B and D. is adjacent to B. D is adjacent to C. D between E and C. F is adjacent to C. Who sitting between F and D? A. A B. E C. C D. B

is A is is

18. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 153, 149, 143, 135, ?

3 A. 131 C. 129

B. 125 D. 127

19. If the diagonal of a square is increased by 4 cm, its area increases by 56 cm 2. Find the ratio of the new area of the square to the initial area of the square. A. 16 : 9 B. 13 : 8 C. 18 : 11 D. 12 : 5 20. Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. IOM, NTR, SYW, ? B. JPN A. XDB C. NSX D. OTZ 21. Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at ‘PQ’ as shown.

B. D.

A. C.

22. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

A.

B.

C.

D.

23. In a certain code language, ‘PHENYL’ is coded as ‘9-11-17-8-5-13’ and ‘COLONY’ is coded as ‘6-12-13-12-8-5’. How will ‘COLONEL’ be coded in that language? A. 6-12-12-13-8-17-13 B. 6-12-13-12-8-17-13 C. 6-12-12-13-8-11-13 D. 6-17-12-13-8-13-11 24. Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

A.

B.

C.

D.

25. ‘Experimenter’ is related to ‘Lab’ in the same way as ‘Chef’ is related to ‘_________’. A. Cooking B. Food C. Dishes D. Kitchen

Part-B : General Knowledge & General Awareness 26. ______ launched the Fit India Mobile App at an event at Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium, New Delhi in August, 2021. A. Anurag Singh Thakur B. Nisith Pramanik C. Ravi Mittal D. Usha Sharma 27. The acceleration of an object is said to be _______ when an object travels in a straight line and its velocity increases or decreases by

equal amount in equal intervals of time. A. negative B. non-uniform C. uniform D. positive 28. Who was appointed as the State Election Commissioner of Jammu and Kashmir on October 30, 2020? A. Kewal Kumar Sharma B. V Bhaskaran C. Shatrunjay Kumar Singh D. Manoj Kumar

4 29. Which of the following animals breathes through its skin? B. Rabbit A. Frog C. Peacock D. Deer 30. Which of the following is the most reactive metal? A. Silver B. Aluminium C. Iron D. Potassium 31. Which non-metal among the following is polyatomic? A. Sulphur B. Argon C. Oxygen D. Helium 32. Who among the following was appointed as the first Municipal Commissioner of Bombay in 1865? A. William Hunter B. Charles Atkinson C. H Fowler D. Arthur Crawford 33. ‘La Liga’ title is associated with _______. A. tennis B. football C. cricket D. sprinting 34. In which of the following states is the Bhoramdeo temple located, where each year in the last week of March ‘Bhoramdeo Mahotsav’ is celebrated? A. West Bengal B. Karnataka C. Tamil Nadu D. Chhattisgarh 35. Who became the first Indian Air Force pilot to perform a wingsuit skydive jump? S/he achieved this feat in July, 2019. A. Shital Mahajan Rane B. Archana Sardana C. Rachel Thomas D. Tarun Chaudhri 36. ______ was the son of a Chief of the Jnatrika (or Jhatrika) Kshatriya clan. A. Gautama Buddha B. Rishabhanath C. Vardhamana Mahavira D. Parshvanath 37. ________ was the residence of the Mughal emperors of India for nearly 200 years until 1857. A. Jehangir Mahal B. Red Fort C. Agra Fort D. Pari Mahal

38. Which of the following states won the ‘Best Tableau’ award at the 71st Republic Day parade in January, 2020? B. Goa A. Assam C. Odisha D. Uttar Pradesh 39. The Uttar Pradesh cabinet approved a proposal to name a zoological garden at ________ after the freedom fighter and revolutionary Ashfaqullah Khan. A. Gorakhpur B. Faizabad D. Ghaziabad C. Shahjahanpur 40. Which of the following statements about the Mahanadi river is INCORRECT? A. It rises in the highlands of Chhattisgarh. B. It drains into the Arabian Sea. C. A part of its river basin lies in Maharashtra. D. It is about 860 km long. 41. Who is the author of the book ‘Courts of India: Past to Present’? A. Shashi Tharoor B. Satyarth Nayak C. Jayanta Kalita D. Ranjan Gogoi 42. The Government of India approved the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PM-JAY) in the year ______. A. 2018 B. 2014 C. 2019 D. 2015 43. The money value of all the final goods and services produced within the country during a particular year is called _________. A. per capita income B. Net Domestic Product C. National Income D. Gross Domestic Product 44. Which of the following options gives the correct chronological order of rulers of the Mauryan Empire? A. Brihadratha - Chandragupta - Bindusara Ashoka B. Ashoka - Brihadratha - Chandragupta Bindusara C. Chandragupta - Bindusara - Ashoka Brihadratha D. Bindusara - Chandragupta - Ashoka Brihadratha

5 45. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right under the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 of Indian constitution? A. Right to property B. Right to equality C. Right against exploitation D. Right to religion

48. The Life Insurance Corporation of India Act was passed by the Parliament in the year ______. A. 1956 B. 1948 C. 1971 D. 1965

46. Which of the following countries hosted the 13th edition of the 2020 ICC Under 19 Cricket World Cup? A. England B. South Africa C. Australia D. India

49. Which of the following is a biometric enabled digital service for pensioners launched by the Government of India? A. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Beema Yojna B. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojna C. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna D. Jeevan Pramaan

47. In which state is the Hogenakkal Falls located? A. Andhra Pradesh B. Kerala C. Maharashtra D. Tamil Nadu

50. Tvesa Malik is an Indian _____ player. A. volleyball B. golf C. chess D. basketball

Part-C : Elementary Mathematics 51. The value of 42 ÷ 9 of 6 – [64 ÷ 48 × 3 – 15 ÷ 8 × (11 – 17) ÷ 9] ÷ 14 is: 19 7 A. B. 36 18 29 5 C. D. 72 12

54. There are two sections A and B of a class, consisting of 38 and 42 students, respectively. If the average weight of the students of section A is 55 kg and that of section B is 32 kg, find the average weight of all the students in the class: A. 42 kg B. 42.925 kg C. 44.925 kg D. 40.925 kg

2 of a work in 6 days and B can do 5 30% of the same work in 3 days. They worked together for 4 days. The remaining work was completed by C alone in 6 days. B and C together can complete 70% of the original work in: 1 B. 4 days A. 5 days 2 1 C. 5 days D. 4 days 2 53. The amount of a certain sum in 3 years at simple interest at x% p.a. is ` 5,472 and the 1 amount of the same sum in 7 years at the 2 same rate, at simple interest is ` 6,930. The value of x is: A. 7.2 B. 8.5 C. 8 D. 6.5

55. A dealer sold an article at a loss of 4%. Had he sold it for ` 120 more, he would have gained 8%. To gain 11%, he should sell the article for? A. ` 1,110 B. ` 1,200 C. ` 1,320 D. ` 1,210

52. A can do

56. A sum fetched a simple interest of ` 3,040 at the rate of 8% p.a. in 5 years. What is the sum? A. ` 8,600 B. ` 7,600 C. ` 7,700 D. ` 6,600 57. The greatest number that on dividing 2675 and 2320 leaves the reminders 5 and 6, respectively, is: A. 168 B. 170 C. 187 D. 178 58. Speed of an aircraft is 120 km/min. This speed in m/sec is: A. 120000 B. 12000 C. 1200 D. 2000

6 59. A and B can complete a piece of work in 120 days, B and C can complete it in 150 days, and A and C can complete it in 200 days. In how many days can B alone complete twofifths of the same work? A. 200 B. 100 C. 80 D. 175 60. If the sides of a triangle measure 21 cm, 35 cm and 28 cm, what is the measure of its in radius? (in cm) A. 8 cm B. 7 cm C. 21 cm D. 9 cm 61. After giving a discount of 20% on the marked price of an article, it is sold for ` 120. Had the discount not been given, the profit would have been 20%. What is the cost price of the article? A. ` 120 B. ` 130 C. ` 100 D. ` 125 62. A discount of 20% on the price of an article is the same as a discount of 25% on the price of another article. The prices of the two articles will be, respectively: B. ` 60 and ` 50 A. ` 40 and ` 50 D. ` 50 and ` 60 C. ` 50 and ` 40 63. The sides of a triangular park are 96 m, 110 m and 146 m. Its area is equal to the area of a field in the shape of a rhombus, one of whose diagonals is 60 m. The length (in m) of its other diagonal is: A. 176 B. 132 C. 218 D. 88 64. What is the third proportional to 9 and 36? A. 72 B. 288 C. 144 D. 122 65. Solve the following: 523 + 523 × 523 ÷ 523 A. 1005 B. 1235 C. 1542 D. 1046 66. A shopkeeper has some toys. He sells twothird of the toys at a profit of 35% and the remaining toys at 10% loss. What is his overall percentage of profit? A. 16% B. 20% C. 18% D. 25%

67. Two trains start from places A and B, respectively, and travel towards each other at the speeds of 60 km /h and 50 km /h, respectively. By the time they meet, the faster train has travelled 110 km more than the slower train. What is the distance between A and B? B. 1200 km A. 1100 km D. 1210 km C. 1150 km 68. The ratio of two numbers is 9 : 5. If S is added to the larger number and 4 is subtracted from the smaller number, the greater number becomes twice the smaller number. The larger number is: B. 104 A. 110 C. 144 D. 114 69. Vignesh spends 42% of his monthly salary on food, 16% on house rent, 11% on entertainment and 7% on conveyance. But due to some family function, he has to borrow ` 12,000 from a money lender to meet the expenses of ` 18,000. What is his monthly salary? A. 20,000 B. 24,000 C. 30,000 D. 25,000 70. The average of 4, 6, 8, 12 and x is 7 and the average of x, 9, 13, 15 and y is 9. What is the value of 2x – 3y? B. 3 A. 5 C. 19 D. 1 71. If the compound interest on a certain sum of money for two years at 9% p.a. is ` 3,762, then the sum is: A. ` 20,000 B. ` 18,000 C. ` 25,000 D. ` 24,000 72. The ratio of the ages of A, B and C, 5 years ago, was 4 : 5 : 7. The sum of their present ages is 135 years. What will be the sum of the ages (in years) of B and C, 3 years from now? A. 100 B. 96 C. 106 D. 112 73. Three numbers are in the ratio 4 : 9 : 13 and their LCM is 2340. Then HCF is: A. 7 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

7 74. A man sells two articles at ` 9,180 each. He gains 8% on one article and loses 15% on the other. His overall profit or loss is: A. Profit ` 840 B. Loss ` 840 C. Loss ` 940 D. Profit ` 940

75. The price of a car increased by 5% while its sales decreased by 16%. What is the percentage change in the total revenue? A. 5% decrease B. 9% increase C. 9% decrease D. 5% increase

Part-D : English 76. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. To A. B. C. D.

be on the same page To be published together To read a book together To understand what the other says To agree on something

77. Select the option that can be used as a oneword substitute for the given group of words. One who collects coins A. Fatalist B. Philatelist C. Numismatist D. Anthropologist 78. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Spellbound A. Amazed C. Enthralled

B. Captivated D. Disenchanted

79. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. We’ll look at / your pet / when you go / on a vacation. A. We’ll look at B. on a vacation C. when you go D. your pet 80. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence. Besides generating revenue, tourism brings a break from the ceremony of daily life. A. scrutiny B. symphony C. monotony D. company 81. Select the correctly spelt word. A. Asassisnation B. Bureaucracy C. Philianthropist D. Peadeatrician

82. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Tickled pink A. Fond of pink C. Very pleased

B. Very sensitive D. Easily teased

83. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. My sister bought the ______ watch. A. antipathy B. colloquial C. antilocal D. antique 84. Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word. Ample A. Sparse C. Limited

B. Sufficient D. Scarce

85. Select the option that can be used as a oneword substitute for the given group of words. Many fish swimming together A. Shoal B. Bevy C. Brood D. Flock 86. Select the option that can be used as a oneword substitute for the given group of words. A person who supervises during an examination A. Invigilator B. Examinee C. Principal D. Administrator 87. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. The most important / of all my goals / are to/ learn English. A. of all my goals B. The most important C. are to D. learn English

8 88. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’. The condition of the house had been so deteriorated from lack of maintenance that nobody wanted to purchase it. A. No substitution required B. was deteriorating C. was so deteriorated D. had so deteriorated 89. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Submissive A. Adamant C. Obedient

B. Obdurate D. Obstinate

90. Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select ‘No improvement required’. The new President has bring in many reforms. A. No improvement required B. brought about C. bring up D. brought out 91. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. Fictitious A. False C. Imaginative

B. Factual D. Subjective

92. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. She __________ why I had not sent her an invitation. A. granted B. enquired C. desired D. denied

94. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. A. Wistle B. Cereal C. Tunnel D. Rustle 95. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. I wish / I am / the Principal / of the school! A. I wish B. of the school C. I am D. the Principal Directions (Qs. No. 96-100): In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank. Writing is a form (1) ______, and neat handwriting is important when writing (2) ______ that will be read by someone else. We (3) ______ by the quality of our handwriting, and (4) ______ our handwriting is poor, we (5) ______ to be lazy or incompetent. 96. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1. A. in expression B. to expressing C. for expression D. of expression 97. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2. A. nothing B. everything C. anything D. each thing 98. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3. A. should be often judged B. are often judged C. have been often judged D. judged often

93. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

99. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4. A. as B. while C. where D. when

The government should take steps to ______ pollution. A. control B. convey C. conduct D. consume

100. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5. A. appear B. see C. expose D. look

(1909) SSC-Cons. GD-2021—2

9

ANSWERS 1. (D):

F

B O

D

–2

–2

M

–2

K J –2

H –2

F U –2

S –2

P

11. (D):

+19

Hence, USP is different.

Q

and

E

R

K

T

T

Y

E

Z

P

is written as

:

725

7. (D)

9. (B): Teacher

Employee

The Venn diagram is the best represents the given relationship.

2

2

18

3

2

14. (C)

R

O

Q

P

34 +16 2

4

59 +25 5

2

95 +36 2

6

Hence, 59 will come at the place of question mark.

A

E

D

C

F

Clearly, C is sitting between F and D.

25 × 25 + 25 × 4 = 625 + 100 = 725

8. (B): 100 ÷ (1 × 4) + 2 × (13 + 11) – 3 × (17 – 12) = 25 + 48 – 15 = 73 – 15 = 58.

+9

+27

17. (C): Six friends are sitting in a straight line.

6. (B)

+4

+9

16. (D)

Hence, 725 will come at the place of question mark.

9

75

Hence, R is sitting in the middle of the row.

18. (B):

5

S

U

T

I

480 :: 25

School

48

39

13. (D)

B

5. (A)

57

+17

15. (B):

E

:

90

+19

+17

12. (D) is written as

20 × 20 + 20 × 4 = 400 + 80 = 480

10. (D):

+17

+19

3. (C) 4. (B): 20

73

54

Hence, 39, 48, 75 is different.

S

G U A V A +4 +4 +4 +4 +4 K

is written as

P P L E A +4 +4 +4 +4 +4 E

82

40

21

2. (C): In a certain code language, M A N G O +4 +4 +4 +4 +4

65

46

–2

153

143

149 –4

–6

135 –8

125 –10

Hence, 125 will come at the place of question mark. 19. (A)

20. (A)

21. (A)

22. (D)

23. (B)

24. (B)

25. (D): Experiment is related to ‘Lab’ in the same way as ‘Chef’ is related to ‘Kitchen’. 26. (A)

27. (C)

28. (A)

29. (A)

30. (D)

31. (A)

32. (D)

33. (B)

34. (D)

35. (D)

36. (C)

37. (B)

38. (A)

39. (A)

40. (B)

41. (D)

42. (A)

43. (D)

44. (C)

45. (A)

46. (B)

47. (D)

48. (A)

49. (D)

50. (B) 51. (C): 42 ÷ 9 of 6 – [64 ÷ 48 × 3 – 15 ÷ 8 × (11 – 17) ÷ 9] ÷ 14

10

15 (–6)   64  14 = 42  54 –   3 –  48 8 9   42  5 7 21 1 7 3 –  4    14 = –   – = 54  4 9 4 14 9 8 =

56 – 27 29  . 72 72

52. (D): Whole work will be done by A in 5  6 = 15 days 2 Whole work will be done by B in

10  3 = 10 days 3 4 days work done by A and B 1 2 1 1  2  3 = 4    4 = 4   15 10   30  6 3 2 1 Remaining work = 1 –  3 3 Whole work will be done by C in 3 × 6 = 18 days (B and C)’s 1 day work =

1 1 9  5 14    10 18 90 90

14 part can do in 1 day 90 7 90 7  (B + C) part can do in days  10 14 10 9 1 = days = 4 days. 2 2 1 53. (A): Simple interest in 4 years 2 = 6930 – 5472 = ` 1458 Simple interest in 1 year

54. (B): Total weight of 38 students of section A = 38 × 55 = 2090 kg Total weight of 42 students of section B = 42 × 32 = 1344 kg Total weight of section A and B students = 2090 + 1344 = 3434 kg

3434 = 42.925 kg 80 Hence, Average weight of all the students in the class = 42.925 kg. Average =

55. (A): Let C.P. be ` x, then 108% of x – 96% of x = 120  12% of x = 120 100  120  1000  x = 12 11  1000 For 11% gain, S.P. = C.P.  100 = 1000 + 110 = ` 1110.

57. (D): and

(B + C)

2  1458 = 2 × 162 = ` 324 9 Simple interest in 3 years = ` 972 Principal = 5472 – 972 = ` 4500 =

x =

972  100 36   7.2% 4500  3 5

Hence, the value of x = 7.2.

SI  100 3040  100 = r t 85 = 1520 × 5 = ` 7600.

P =

56. (B):

2675 – 5 = 2670 2320 – 6 = 2314 2314

2670 2314 356 2314 6 2136 178 356 356

2

Hence, the required number = 178. 58. (D): Speed = 120 km/min

120  1000 m/sec = 2000 m/sec. 60 1 59. (C): (A + B)’s 1 day work = 120 1 (B + C)’s 1 day work = 150 1 (A + C)’s 1 day work = 200 [(A + B) + (B + C) + (C + A)]’s 1 day work  2[A + B + C]’s 1 day work =

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