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BUSINESS AWARENESS

For IBPS (CWE), SBI PO/Clerk, MT, LIC/GIC, MBA, BBA, BBS, BBE, BMS, CAT, MAT, CMAT & Other Exams

2000+ MCQs on All Aspects of Business Awareness

BUSINESS GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

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R. Gupta's ®

For IBPS (CWE), SBI PO/Clerk, MT, LIC/GIC, MBA, BBA, BBS, BBE, BMS, CAT, MAT, CMAT & Other Exams

On All Aspects of Business Awareness

By RPH Editorial Board

Published by O.P. Gupta for Ramesh Publishing House Admin. Office 12-H, New Daryaganj Road, Opp. Officers' Mess, New Delhi-110002  23261567, 23275224, 23275124 E-mail: [email protected] For Online Shopping: www.rameshpublishinghouse.com Showroom Balaji Market, Nai Sarak, Delhi-6  23253720, 23282525 4457, Nai Sarak, Delhi-6,  23918938 © Reserved with the Publisher No Part of this book may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical including photocopying, recording or by any transformation storage and retrieval system without written permission from the Publisher. Indemnification Clause: This book is being sold/distributed subject to the exclusive condition that neither the author nor the publishers, individually or collectively, shall be responsible to indemnify the buyer/user/possessor of this book beyond the selling price of this book for any reason under any circumstances. If you do not agree to it, please do not buy/accept/use/ possess this book.

Book Code: R-567 ISBN: 978-93-5012-699-8 12th Edition: January, 2021 HSN Code: 49011010

CONTENTS 1. Business Organisation .................................................. 3-24 2. Management Principles ............................................. 25-41 3. Office Management .................................................... 42-48 4. Accounting Principles ................................................ 49-69 5. Business Law ................................................................ 70-93 6. Marketing ................................................................... 94-119 7. Taxation .................................................................... 120-132 8. Banking & Finance ................................................. 133-188 9. Economy ................................................................... 189-195 10. Insurance .................................................................. 196-204

(iii)

136 (iv)

R. Gupta’s®

OBJECTIVE QUESTION BANK R-1472 R-1261 R-1212 R-1213 R-1203 R-1157 R-1134 R-1031 R-1032 R-1015 R-1014 R-977 R-755 R-658 R-663 R-662 R-426 R-427 R-265 R-1377 R-1378 R-1379 R-1380 R-1381 R-899 R-776 R-1915 R-966 R-898 R-808 R-809 R-802 R-786 R-1063

Book Name Objective Biotechnology Objective Objective Objective Objective

Botany Zoology Environmental Sciences Agriculture Science

Objective Computer Awareness

Objective Science Objective Physics (enlarged edition) Objective Chemistry Objective Biology Objective Mathematics Objective Computer Science Objective Physics Objective General Science

Objective Objective Objective Objective Objective Objective Objective

Physical Education Psychology Home Science Philosophy Commerce Sociology Political Science

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Book Code

160 230 160 240 230 220 230 135 130 110 180 190 190 160 160 210 170 130 140 390 390 260 490 495 130 190 180 160 170 160 270 180 190 280

R-1017

Book Name

Price (`) 120

R-1016

Objective Social Studies

195

R-681

Objective History

260

R-679

Objective Public Administration

160

R-712

Objective Geography

190

R-720

Objective Economics

180

R-1084

140

R-532

180

R-535

150

R-536

150

R-537

170

R-566

140

R-572

180

R-748

160

R-713

75

R-496

190

R-661

140

R-986 R-229 R-1762

120 160

R-661 R-527 R-100 R-102 R-111 R-110 R-443

Objective General English General English for Competitive Exams Objectivce MCQs

Objective Civil Engineering Objective Electrical Engineering Objective Mechanical Engineering Objective Electronics Engineering Objective Electronics & Telecommunication Engineering (enlarged edition)

R-99 R-101 R-442 R-549

12-H, New Daryaganj Road, Opp. Officers’ Mess, Delhi-110002 For Online Shopping: www.rameshpublishinghouse.com

120 140 180 220 195 280 120 180 230 180 220 220

2101

Book Code

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Business Awareness .......................................................................................................................................................

1

(567) Busi. Awr.–1

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1 BUSINESS ORGANISATION III. Public Limited C. personal supervision Company IV. Nominal D. firm image Partnership Codes: (a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D (b) II-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D (c) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D (d) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

1. According to the Principle of Subrogation (a) The insured must take all necessary steps to minimise the loss. (b) The actual amount of loss, not exceeding the amount of the policy, shall be paid. (c) The actual amount of loss should be distributed among the different insurers of the same risk. (d) On making good the loss, the insurer is entitled to succeed to all the rights of the insured regarding the subject matter of insurance.

6. The main object of stock exchange is to (a) Provided facilities for speculation (b) Safeguard the interest of investors (c) Help in the capital formation of the country (d) Provide a ready market for securities

2. The persons who agree to insure cargo, hull or freight are called (b) caretakers (a) undertakers (c) underwriters (d) bookkeepers

7. What is network form of organization called in Japan (a) Keiretsu (b) Ransum (d) Seduku (c) Deptku

3. Partnership is a form of business organisation in which business debts can be recovered (a) the managing partners (b) all the managers and partners (c) the firm and the managers (d) the firm and all the partners

8. ‘Fishing Culture’ is classified in (a) Extractive Industry (b) Genetic Industry (c) Construction Industry (d) None of these

4. Of the following organisations the easiest to wind up is the (a) Public Limited Company (b) Multinational Corporation (c) Private Limited Company (d) Partnership Firm

9. If a partnership firm is not registered with the Registrar of firms, (a) it has to pay penalty for non-registration (b) the members can file suits against the third party (c) the members can enforce their rights among themselves (d) none of these

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II I. Partners and A. agent and principle Firms relationship II. Sole B. prospectus Proprietorship

10. Which of the following is not an economic activity? (a) A doctor practising (b) A lawyer practising law 3

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Business Awareness .......................................................................................................................................................

(c) A professional cricketer playing cricket (d) A student playing cricket 11. In order an activity may be called business which of the following condition need not be satisfied? (a) There should be exchange or transfer of goods or services (b) There should be continuity of dealings (c) Dealings may be either in goods or services (d) There should be certainty of profit 12. Which among the following is a central problem of an economy (a) What to produce (b) How to produce (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 13. In a private business enterprise profit should be regarded as (a) the legitimate reward for honest end labour (b) the supreme objective of business (c) the sole objective of business (d) subsidiary to service motive 14. Which of the following should be regarded as the most important factor for deciding the form of business organisation? (a) Types of business, trading manufacturing, etc (b) Expected volume of business (c) Financial requirements (d) Area of operations 15. The liability of a sole proprietor is (a) limited to the extent of his capital invested in the business (b) limited to the extent of the value of business assets (c) limited to the extent of the value of business assets and his all private assets (d) none of these 16. The agreement of partnership (a) must be in oral (b) must be in writing (c) can be either oral or in writing (d) must be in writing on a stamp paper

17. Liability of partners in respect of the firm’s debts is (a) limited up to the amount of his capital in the business (b) unlimited (c) limited up to the amount of gurantee given by the partner (d) limited up to the amount of his capital and loan to the firm if any 18. Partnership may come into existence (a) by the operation of law (b) by an express agreement only (c) by an express or implied agreement only (d) by inheritance of property 19. A partner has an implied authority to (a) acquire immovable property on behalf of the firm (b) enter into a partnership on behalf of the firm (c) to borrow money on behalf of the firm (d) to compromise or relinquish any claim or portion of a claim by the firm. 20. If a firm is not registered with the registrar of firms (a) it has to pay penalty for non-registration (b) it introduces certain disabilities which make registration necessary at one time or the other (c) the members of the unregistered firm can enforce their rights between themselves (d) the members of the unregistered firm can file suit against third parties. 21. Dissolution of firm takes place (a) by the death or insolvency of anyone partner (b) the retirement of any one partner (c) by the expiry of the term (d) by the insolvency of all but one partner 22. Registration of joint stock company is (a) compulsory (b) optional (c) compulsory for public companies and optional for private company

..................................................................................................................................................... Business Organisation

(d) compulsory for companies with liabilities lim ited by shares and optional for companies with liabilities limited by guarantee 23. The minimum number of member require for registration of a co-operative society is (b) seven (a) two (c) ten (d) twenty 24. Co-operative and public companies are similar in respect of (a) the liability of members (b) the minimum number of members required for registration (c) the maximum number of members (d) none of these 25. Profits earned by a co-operative society are distributed. (a) to members in the ratio of capital held by them (b) to member in the ratio of purchases made by them (c) by providing a nominal rate of interest on capital contribution by members and remaining in the ratio of purchases made by members (d) by declaring dividend at a specific rate and remaining transfering to general reserves. 26. Management of a co-operative organisation is in the hands of (a) persons nominated by the Registrar of co-operative societies (b) an elected body by the members (c) some persons nominated by Registrar of co-operative societies and other selected by the member (d) the promoters of the co-operative organisation 27. Which of the following is an example of a company incorporated by a special act of parliament? (a) Delhi Cloth Mills Ltd. (b) Tata Iron and Steel Co. Ltd. (c) Industrial Finance Corporation. (d) Swadeshi Cotton Mills Ltd.

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28. Which of the following documents need not be prepared and Registered with the Registrar of companies in public limited companies. (a) Memorandum of Association (b) Articles of Association (c) Statutory Declaration (d) Directors of undertaking to take up and pay for qualification shares. 29. The term, ‘capitalisation’ is used in relation to (a) sole-proprietorship (b) partnership (c) joint stock companies (d) co-operative societies 30. Which of the following methods provide a better basis of capitalisation for an establised concern? (a) Add up the cost of fixed assets and working capital required (b) Add up the cost of fixed assets, working capital and cost of promotion etc. (c) Capitalise the profits to be earned. (d) Estimate on the basis of financial position of other similar companies. 31. Watered capital means (a) over- capitalistation (b) under capitalistation (c) excessive capital (d) part of the capital not reprensented by assets 32. Over capitalisation may be remedied by (a) increasing the number of equity shares (b) increasing the per value of shares (c) issuing additional preference shares (d) redemption of debentures 33. Under Capitalisation can be remedied by (a) isssue of bonus shares (b) redemption of preference shares (c) redemption of debentures (d) reduction of interest of debentures 34. Capital gearing means (a) proper capitalisation (b) watered capital (c) fixation of a proper ratio between two or more types of securities (d) trading on equity

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Business Awareness .......................................................................................................................................................

35. A company is said to be low geared when the proportion of (a) equity capital to the total capital is small (b) preference capital to the total capital is small (c) debentures capital to the total capital is small (d) both preference and debentures capital to the total is small 36. Working capital can be used for the purchase of (b) goodwill (a) machinery (c) land and building (d) raw material 37. Which of the following sources is not used for medium term financing? (a) Issue of equity shares (b) Issue of preference shares (c) Issue of debentures (d) Terms loan from banks 38. Working capital is represented by (a) current liabilities (b) current assets minus current liabilities (c) total assets minus current liabilities (d) cash-in-hand plus stock-in-trade. 39. Participating preference shares are those which participate (a) in the voting (b) in the general meeting of the company. (c) in the management of the company. (d) in the profits over and above their fixed dividend. 40. In which of the following, rate of interest/ dividends is not fixed? (a) equity capital (b) debentures (c) preference capital (d) public deposits 41. To which of the following types of companies, debentures suit as a source of finance? (a) companies with fluctuating earnings (b) companies with stable earnings (c) companies which cannot earn a rate of profit higher than the rate of interest, payable on debentures (d) all of these

42. First debentures are those (a) which are issued before share capital (b) which are repayable before other debentures (c) which are secured by a floating charges (d) which are secured by a fixed charges 43. Underwriters are persons who (a) purchase the shares and debentures of a company (b) work as agents of the company for the sale of shares and debentures (c) manage the issue of shares and debentures (d) undertake to buy those shares and debentures not subscribed for by the public 44. Which of the following institutions under take underwriting of shares and debentures of companies? (a) Unit Trust of India (b) Industrial Development Bank of India (c) State Finance Corporations (d) All of these 45. Which of the following sources of finance do not pose a burden on the company? (a) Public deposits (b) Debentures (c) Loans from financial institutions (d) Retained earnings 46. Which of the following is not a component of the new issue market? (a) Stock exchanges (b) Unit Trust of India (c) Financial Institution of India like IFC, IDBI (d) LIC 47. When an existing company offers its shares for sale to the existing shareholders, it is known as (a) private placing (b) bonus issue (c) rights issue (d) offer for sale 48. The first stock exchange was set up in India in (a) Kolkata (b) Mumbai (c) Delhi (d) Chennai

..................................................................................................................................................... Business Organisation

49. The first stock exchange was set up in India in (a) 1887 (b) 1905 (d) 1923 (c) 1908 50. Which of the speculators expects the price of securities to rise in the near future? (a) bull (b) bear (c) stag (d) lame duck 51. Which of the following speculative activities is based on disparity in quote prices in different markets? (a) Option dealings (b) Arbitrage (d) Blank transfers (c) Margin trading 52. Cantango charge is paid by a (a) bull speculator to bear speculator (b) bear speculator to bull speculator (c) lame duck to bull speculator (d) bull to lame duck speculator 53. Listing of securities in a stock exchange for the purpose of trading indicates that (a) at the time of listing, the company is financially sound (b) at the time of listing, the company is legally organised (c) the stock exchange guarantees about the financial soundness of the company (d) all of these 54. An existing company raising additional capital (a) must offer the new shares to the existing shareholders (b) need not offer the new shares to the existing shareholders (c) issues share to debenture holders (d) issue shares to preference share holders 55. Stock exchange deals with the (a) second hand securities (b) issues of equity shares (c) issue of preference shares (d) issue of debentures 56. One of the impelling causes of business combination is (a) desire for bigness (b) wasteful competition

7

(c) influence of tariffs (d) rationalisation 57. When a cement mill, a steel mill and a chemical company combine, it is a case of (a) horizontal combination (b) vertical combination (c) diagonal combination (d) circular combination 58. Which of the following is an example of vertical integration? (a) One small steel mill combines with a big steel mill (b) Two steel mills of the same combine (c) Iron ore firm combines with iron melting firm (d) Paper mill combines with a publishing company 59. Combination of plants at the same stage of production or in the same trade or commerce is called a (a) horizontal combination (b) vertical combination (c) diagonal combination (d) allied combination 60. One of the main advantages of vertical combination is that (a) it helps in avoiding competition (b) it helps in controlling the market (c) it helps in controlling the quality of raw material and finished output (d) it brings about coordination between activities of combining units 61. Pools are a type of (a) horizontal combinations (b) vertical combinations (c) allied combinations (d) none of these 62. Cartel is a type of (a) horizontal combination (b) vertical combination (c) allied combination (d) mixed combination

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Business Awareness .......................................................................................................................................................

63. FICCI was formed in the year (a) 1920 (b) 1925 (c) 1927 (d) 1951 64. Business combinations are formed to derive the advantages of (a) enabling the units to join hands and establish a monopoly (b) avoiding wasteful competition (c) enabling business units to withstand the rigours of a depression (d) all of these 65. Match the following. List-I List-II I. Trust A. Company A holds more than 51% share capital of the company B B. Existing companies II. Merger A and B are merged into company C III. Holding C. Business of number of firms is entrusted to the Company care of Board of Trustees IV. Amalgamation D. Company A takes over Company B Select the correct answer from the code given below : Codes: (a) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D (b) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D (c) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-II (d) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C 66. MRTP Act came into force in (b) 1970 (a) 1969 (c) 1971 (d) 1980

69. When custom duty is levied according to the weight of good, it is known as (a) revenue duty (b) excise duty (d) ad-valorem duty (c) specific duty 70. Import procedure begins with (a) mate’s reciept (b) marine insurance (d) shipping bill (c) indent 71. Shipping order is issued by the owner of the ship when (a) whole of the ship is hired (b) major part of the ship is hired (c) freight is reserved for the exporter (d) ship starts its journey 72. A shipping bill is prepared when (a) goods are damaged in the ship (b) goods reach their destination in satisfactory condition (c) goods are not cleared by the custom authorities (d) none of these 73. Entrepot trade means (a) import trade (b) export trade (c) foreign trade (d) goods imported for re-export 74. A letter of credit means (a) a letter sent by importer to exporter sanctioning credit deal (b) a letter sent by exporter to importer sanctioning credit deal (c) a letter containing conditions of credit purchase or sale (d) a bank agreeing to accept and pay on due date

67. Resale price maintenance is a (a) restrictive trade practice (b) monopolistic trade practice (c) both of these (d) none of these

75. A bill of loading transferable to another person by (a) mere delivery (b) endorsement and delivery (c) any of the above (d) this one is not transferable

68. When custom duty is levied according to the value of the goods, it is known as (a) revenue duty (b) excise duty (c) specific duty (d) ad-valorem duty

76. Charter party means (a) an agreement by which the ship owner agrees to place the entire or part of the ship at the disposal of the merchant.

..................................................................................................................................................... Business Organisation

9

(b) the party who works as a middleman between shipper and shipping company. (c) the party w ho performs loading or unloading operations on the ship. (d) the party working as a middleman between importer and exporter.

(a) when policy is taken (b) when loss is incurred (c) through out the period of contract of insurance (d) both when policy is taken and when loss is incurred

77. State Trading Corporation of India was established (a) by a special Act of Parliament (b) under the companies Act, 1956 as a private limited company (c) under the companies Act, 1956 as a public limited company (d) as departmental undertaking

83. In marine insurance, the insured must have insurable interest at the time (a) when policy is taken (b) when the event happens (c) when policy is taken as well as event happens (d) when throughout the period of contract of insurance

78. Which of the following is not a subsidiary of the State Trading Corporation of India? (a) Indian Motion Picture Export Corporation of India (b) Handicraft and a Handlooms Export Corporation of India Ltd. (c) Project and Equipment Corporation of India Ltd. (d) All of these

84. According to the principle of cause proxima the assured can recover the loss from the insurer (a) if it is proximatry caused by any of the perils insured against (b) if it is caused by any of the remote cause (c) if it is caused by any reason, whatsoever (d) all of these

79. Mate’s (a) the (b) the (c) the (d) the

receipt is issued by exporter importer captain of the ship or his assistant bank

80. Under which of the following principles of insurance, parties to the contract must disclose the material facts known to them? (a) Indemnity (b) Utmost good faith (c) Subrogation (d) Insurable interest 81. A person can insure (a) any body’s property (b) only his own property (c) only that property in which he is interested (d) only that property in which he has financial interest 82. In the case of fire insurance, the insured must have insurable interest in the thing insured at the time

85. The principle of subrogation applies to (a) all types of insurance (b) fire insurance only (c) marine insurance only (d) fire and marine insurance 86. The principle of contribution applies when (a) there are two or more insurance on one risk (b) the insured does not take necessary steps to mitigate the loss (c) the insured insures the same risk partly with other insurers (d) the premium is not paid by the insured 87. Surrender value of a life policy is the amount payable by Life Insurance Corporation when (a) the life policy matures by death (b) the life policy matures after the expiry of the policy period (c) the life policy is withdrawn before its maturity (d) the payment of premiums is discontinued and the amount is payable at the maturity of the policy (567) Busi. Awr.–2

10 Business Awareness .......................................................................................................................................................

88. Principle of subrogation states that (a) the actual amount of loss should be distributed among the differented insurers of the same risk (b) on making good the loss, the insurers is entitled to succeed to all the rights of the insured regarding the subject matter of insurance (c) the insured must take all necessary steps to minimise the loss (d) the actual amount of loss, exceeding the amount of the policy, shall be paid 89. Average clause in a fire policy is inserted in order to check mainly (a) under-insurance (b) over-insurance (c) both other-insurance and under-insurance (d) all of these 90. X mortgages certain property with Y who has insurable interest in property (b) only Y (a) only X (c) both X and Y (d) none of these 91. Principle of insurable interest applies to (a) life insurance only (b) fire insurance only (c) fire and marine insurance only (d) all types of insurance 92. In which of the following kinds of insurance, insurable interest should be present only at the time of loss subject-matter (a) life insurance (b) fire insurance (c) marine insurance (d) all of these 93. Unless the marine policy otherwise provides, insurer is liable (a) if the loss is caused by ordinary wear and tear (b) if the loss is caused by peril insured against. (c) if the loss is caused by ordinary leakage and breakage (d) if the loss is caused by inherent nature of the subject-matter 94. The life of a co-operative society is (a) affected by the death of a member (b) affected by the insolvency of a member

(c) affected by the withdrawal by a member from membership (d) not affected by death, insolvency etc. of members 95. Non-registration of a partnership does not affect (a) the right of a partner to sue the firm (b) the right of the firm to sue third parties (c) the right of the third party to proceed against the firm or its partners (d) any of these 96. If a minor choose to continue as a partner on attaining the age of majority, he will be liable to the debts of the firm from the date of this (a) attaining majority (b) admission to profits of the firm (c) choosing to become a partner at subsequent date (d) guardian giving the option 97. The liability of the Karta in a joint Hindu family is (a) limited to his interest in the joint family (b) unlimited (c) limited to the entire property of the family (d) limited to the private properties of all the member 98. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-II List-I (Organisation) (Associated with) I. Joint stock A. Memorandum of company Association (M/A) II. Co-operative B. Special Act society III. Statutory C. Mutual contract corporation IV. Partnership D. Bye-laws Codes: (a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D (b) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B (c) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D (d) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C

..................................................................................................................................................... Business Organisation 11

99. Which one of the following is not the distinctive feature of the co-operative form of the business organisation? (a) Service before self (b) Democratic management (c) Corporate status (d) One-share one-vote system 100. Which one of the following does not constitute the purpose of setting up SEBI (a) To protect the interest of the investors in securities (b) To promote the development of the securities markets (c) To regulate the global securities markets (d) To deal with matters connected with fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to securities market 101. Which one of the following best supports the theory that the stock exchange is a secondary market? In a stock exchange (a) Securities are bought and sold by way of transfer (b) An existing holder of securities can dispose of the holding to another invest or who intends to buy them (c) No new investment is created (d) Securities are dealt in for dual purposes investment and speculation 102. Com bination of printing and dyeing companies is a type of (a) vertical combination (b) horizontal combination (c) circular combination (d) allied combination. 103. In addition to consumer forums which one of the following looks after the interest of consumers? (a) High Court (b) Company Law Board (c) M.R.T.P. (d) Bureau of Industrial Costs and Prices 104. Which one of the following is not a commercial risk

(a) Insolvency of the buyer (b) New restrictions placed on import export trade (c) Damage to goods in transit (d) Change in the exchange rate 105. The average clause in a fire policy states that the insured can get back. (a) only that portion of the actual loss suffered as the sum insured bears to total value (b) the entire amount of the total loss suffered (c) the entire amount of partial loss suffered (d) a fixed percentage of loss suffered 106. Consider the following statements : The social responsibility of business is to: I. Do a business as per the public policy. II. Obey all the rules and regulations of the Government. III. Make payment of the taxes imposed by the Government. IV. Provide not necessarily adequate but good quality of goods. of these statements: (a) II and III are correct (b) I and IV are correct (c) I, II and III are correct. (d) I, II, III and IV are correct. 107. One of the consequences of non-registration of a partnership firm is that (a) a partner cannot sue the other partner to enforce a right arising from a contract (b) the partner of such a firm cannot sue third parties (c) third parties cannot sue the firm for claims exceeding ` 100 (d) the official Assignee or Receiver will have no power on the property of the dissolved firm 108. Consider the following rights: I. Right to take part in the business. II. Right to share profits. III. Right to interest on advances in excess of capital IV. Right to expel a non-cooperative partner

About the Book The present book ‘Business Awareness’ in MCQ-format, is all about ‘Business General Knowledge’ and has been specially developed keeping in mind the requirements of Students, exam-aspirants and other readers with academic as well as competitions’ point of view. The book is especially useful for the aspirants of various competitive exams such as: IBPS/SBI–Bank PO/MT, Clerks, MBA, BBA, BBS, BBE, BMS, CAT, MAT, CMAT, LIC, GIC, etc., and many other exams where Business Awareness forms an essential part of the Examination. The book comprises a wide spectrum of question-answers (2000-plus MCQs) on the following subjects: l

Business Organisation l Management Principles l Office Management l Accounting Principles l Business Law l Marketing l Taxation l Banking & Finance l Economy l Insurance

The book will definitely prove to be a boon to the inquisitive students, exam-aspirants, and other readers in improving and enhancing their Business General Knowledge and will immensely help them perform better in their respective exams and competitions. While the valuable practice material in the MCQ-form is published with the sole aim of Enhancing your Business Awareness, your own intelligence and practice, in harmony with this, will definitely ensure you Success in your endeavour.

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