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DELHI METRO RAIL CORPORATION

Maintainer (Electronic Mechanic) Recruitment Exam l l l

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R. Gupta’s® POPULAR MASTER GUIDE

DMRC

DELHI METRO RAIL CORPORATION

Maintainer (Electronic Mechanic)

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EDIT ION

Ramesh Publishing House, New Delhi

Published by O.P. Gupta for Ramesh Publishing House Admin. Office 12-H, New Daryaganj Road, Opp. Officers' Mess New Delhi-110002  23261567, 23275224, 23275124 E-mail: [email protected] Website: www.rameshpublishinghouse.com



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No Part of this book may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical including photocopying, recording or by any transformation storage and retrieval system without written permission from the Publisher. Indemnification Clause: This book is being sold/distributed subject to the exclusive condition that neither the author nor the publishers, individually or collectively, shall be responsible to indemnify the buyer/user/possessor of this book beyond the selling price of this book for any reason under any circumstances. If you do not agree to it, please do not buy/accept/use/possess this book.

Book Code: R-2095 ISBN: 978-93-89480-33-7 HSN Code: 49011010 Price: ` 220

CONTENTS Previous Paper (Solved), 2018 ............................................................ 1-10 Previous Paper (Solved), 2017 ........................................................... 11-20 

KNOWLEDGE OF TRADE (ELECTRONIC MECHANIC) ................ 1-100 Basic Workshop Practice; Basics of AC and Electrical; Cells and Batteries; AS & DC Measuring Instruments; Soldering/Desoldering and Various Switches; Active and Passive Components; Power Supply Circuits; Computer Hardware, OS; IC Regulators; Transistor Amplifier; Oscillators; Wave Shaping Circuits; Power Electronic Components; MOSFET & IGBT; Opto-Electronic; Basic Gates, Combinational Circuits, Flip-Flops, Electronic Circuit Simulator, Counters and Shift Registers; Op-Amp and Timer 555 Applications; Digital Storage Oscilloscope; Basic SMD; Protection Devices; Electrical Control Circuits; Electronic Cables and Connectors; Communication Electronics; Microcontroller (8051); Sensors, Transducers and Applications; Fiber Optical Communication; Digital Panel Meter; SMPS and Inverter; UPS; Solar Power (Renewable Energy System); Cell Phones; LED Lights; LCD TV; LED TV.

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GENERAL ENGLISH ................................................................................ 1-48 Comprehension Passages; English Grammar; Sentence Completion; Spotting Errors; One Word Substitution; Spelling Errors.

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GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING ......................................... 1–28 Series; Analogies or Relationships; Odd One Out; Coding and Decoding; Statement Analysis; Place Arrangement; Direction Sense; Blood Relationships; Calandar, Clock, Time, Distance; Rows and Ranks; Number Problems; Symbol Substitution; Missing Numbers; Alphabet Problems; Non-Verbal Series.



QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE ................................................................... 1–40 Number System; LCM and HCF; Average; Problems Based on Ages; Chain Rule; Time and Distance; Time and Work; Boats and Streams; Alligation or Mixture; Percentage; Profit and Loss; Simple Interest; Compound Interest; Area and Perimeter; Volume and Surface Area; Algebraic Operation.



GENERAL AWARENESS ........................................................................ 1-40 National Symbols; Books and Authors; Inventions and Discoveries; World’s Geographical Surnames; Capitals and Currencies of Countries; Indian Cities and Their Rivers; States of India (Capitals, Principal Languages); Biggest, Largest, Tallest of the World; First in India; Presidents of India; Vice-Presidents of India; Prime Ministers of India; Bharat Ratna Award Winners; Computer; Defence; Multiple Choice Questions.

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SELECTION PROCESS For the post of Maintainer (Electronic Mechanic) the selection methodology will comprise two-stage process—Computer Based Test— Online [CBT (One paper)] followed by Medical Examination.

Computer Based Test (CBT) 

The CBT will consist of one paper which will consist of multiple-choice objective type questions, bilingual (Hindi/English), on General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General English and Knowledge of Trade/Discipline.



There will be a total of 120 questions, each carrying equal marks.



There will be negative marking.



For every wrong answer 1/3rd marks will be deducted. The paper shall be of 1.5 hours duration.

R. Gupta’s® USEFUL BOOKS FOR DMRC EXAMINATIONS Book Code

Book Name

R-1060 R-1788 R-1789 R-1790 R-1791 R-355 R-2093 R-2097

DMRC—Station Controller/Train Operator (SC/TO) DMRC—Junior Engineer (Electrical) DMRC—Junior Engineer (Mechanical) DMRC—Junior Engineer (Electronics) DMRC—Junior Engineer (Civil) DMRC—CRA (Customer Relation Assistant) DMRC—Maintainer (Electrician) DMRC—Maintainer (Fitter) For Online Shopping visit: www.rameshpublishinghouse.com

12-H, New Daryaganj Road, Opp. Officers' Mess, New Delhi-110002

(iv)

1 Previous Paper (Solved)

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC)

Maintainer (Electronic Mechanic) Exam 2018 TRADE KNOWLEDGE (ELECTRONIC MECHANIC) Ampere is defined as the flow of: 3.14 × 108 electrons/sec 3.14 × 1018 electrons/sec 6.24 × 1018 electrons/sec 6.24 × 108 electrons/sec

9. Ferromagnetic materials are generally .......... . A. strongly attracted by magnets B. strongly repelled by magnets C. weakly attracted by magnets D. weakly repelled by magnets

2. The value of the current flowing through a 120  resistor connected across a 24 V battery is ............ . A. 2 A B. 500 mA D. 5 A C. 200 mA

10. An electro mechanical relay works on the principle of ............ . A. static electricity B. Faraday’s laws C. electro magnetism D. electrolysis

1. An A. B. C. D.

11. The nominal voltage of a lead acid cell when fully charged is ............... . A. 1.5 V B. 1.8 V C. 2.0 V D. 5.0 V

3. When the distance between the plates of a capacitor increases, then its capacitance will: A. increase B. decrease C. remain unaffected D. increase and then decrease

12. Identify Kirchoff’s current law from the given options: A. The sum of the currents entering a node = the sum of the currents leaving the node B. The sum total of all the currents in a loop = 0 C. The sum of the potential differences across all elements = 0 D. The total current is directly proportional to the applied voltage

4. Capacitance of 1000 µ Farad expressed as Farads is: A. 0.0001 Farads B. 0.001 Farads D. 0.1 Farads C. 0.01 Farads 5. The voltage and frequency of the domestic single phase power supply in India is: A. 440 V, 50 Hz B. 230 V, 50 Hz C. 440 V, 60 Hz D. 230 V, 60 Hz

13. What is the turns ratio of a transformer with Np and Ns as primary and secondary turns respectively? B. Np / Ns A. Ns / Np C. Vs / Vp D. Is / Ip

6. The formula for the capacitive reactance of an inductor of value C Farads at frequency f Hz is: A. 2  C B. 2  f C C. 2  f D. 1/2  f C

14. What is used to rate Transformers? A. Volts B. Amps C. kW D. KVA

7. The most suitable ratio of tin and lead for common electronic soldering is: A. 50 : 50 B. 50 : 40 C. 60 : 40 D. 70 : 30

15. What is the method used in connecting an ammeter for measuring current through a conductor? A. in series B. in shunt C. either series or shunt D. only remotely

8. What is the impact of impedance of a series resonant circuit at resonance? A. maximum B. minimum C. zero D. infinity 1

(2095) Paper-2018 & 2017—1

2 16. What can the moving iron meters measure? A. AC quantities only B. DC quantities only C. Both AC and DC quantities D. Frequency 17. What is the difference between the measured value and the actual value called? A. Deviation B. Error C. Difference D. Allowance 18. The internal sweep signal of a CRO is generally .............. . A. sine wave B. square wave C. triangle wave D. saw tooth wave 19. What is one of the main advantages of a digital storage oscilloscope? A. memory B. speed C. ease of operation D. latest technology 20. What are the two most commonly used semiconductors in electronics? A. Aluminum and Silicon B. Silicon and Germanium C. Mercury and Antimony D. Bismuth and Barium 21. When an acceptor imurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it results in a .............. . A. P type semiconductor B. N type semiconductor C. Q type semiconductor D. PN type semiconductor 22. When +ve voltage is applied to P side and – ve voltage is applied to the N side of a diode, it is referred to as ............... . B. normal biasing A. proper biasing C. reverse biasing D. forward biasing 23. The maximum efficiency that can be obtained by a full wave rectifier is .............. . A. 81.2% B. 80.6% C. 40.6% D. 20.6% 24. The most common application of a Zener diode is as a : A. Rectifier B. Filter C. Detector D. Voltage regulator 25. Which of the following diodes is used in high speed switching activity? A. Tunnel Diode B. Rectifier Diode C. Zener Diode D. Varactor Diode

(2095) Paper-2018 & 2017—1-II

26. Diodes exhibiting negative resistance are suitable as ................ . B. Regulators A. Amplifiers D. Oscillators C. Buffers 27. A PN diode that emits light when properly biased is called ......... . B. LED A. LCD D. LASER C. Photo diode 28. Which of the following is a semiconductor material used in LEDs? B. Gallium Arsenide A. Antimony C. Barium Phosphate D. Sodium Chloride 29. A power supply with ideal regulation will have ............ . A. VNo load = V Full load B. VNo load > V Full load C. VNo load < V Full load D. VNo load < = VFull load 30. What is the output voltage of an IC 7805 regulator? A. + 78 V B. + 2 V D. + 9 V C. + 5 V 31. In an Op Amp voltage regulator, the regulating element is connected .............. . A. in series with load B. across the load C. in series with the Zener diode D. across the Zener diode 32. In a transistor, the current amplification factor is represented by ............... . B. Beta A. Alpha C. Gamma D. Delta 33. In a transistor, the emitter current is 1 mA and the base current is 0.01 mA. The value of collector current would be: A. 1.01 mA B. 0.99 mA C. 1.99 mA D. 1.099 mA 34. What is needed for boxing a transistor to operate in the active region? A. both the emitter collector junctions to be forward biased B. both the emitter collector junctions to be reverse biased C. emitter base junction forward biased and collector base junctions reverse biased D. emitter base junction reverse biased and collector base junctions forward biased

3 35. The transistor configuration that has current gain but no voltage gain is: A. common emitter configuration B. common base configuration C. common collector configuration D. common transformer configuration 36. Class A amplifier uses .............. transistor. A. one B. three C. two D. four 37. In a RC coupled amplifier, the gain is low at low frequencies mainly due to ............. . A. Coupling capacitors B. Stray capacitances C. Power supply D. Filtering issues 38. An absolute power gain of 100 expressed in dbs is ................. . A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 39. In an amplifier, the gain bandwidth product .............. . A. increases with increase in gain B. increases with increase in bandwidth C. decreases with decrease in gain D. remains constant 40. Which of the following classes of amplifiers avoid crossover distortion? A. A B. B D. AB C. C

C. the amplifier output impedance must be zero D. the loop gain must be slightly greater than unity 44. To provide 180° phase shift, a Hartley oscillator uses ................ . A. RC phase shift networks B. tapped inductor and a capacitor C. tapped capacitor and an inductor D. a second amplifier 45. Identify the free running multi vibrator. A. A stable multivibrator B. Monostable multivibrator C. Bistable multivibrator D. Schmidt trigger 46. What is Op Amp? A. high gain optical amplifier B. high frequency optical amplifier C. high gain DC amplifier D. high frequency amplifier 47. What should an ideal Op Amp have? A. zero open loop gain B. infinite output impedance C. infinite bandwidth D. zero input impedance 48. When an Op Amp with supply voltages ± Vcc is operated in open loop mode, the output value would be ............. . B. + Vcc or – Vcc A. 0 V C. + Vcc D. – Vcc

41. Positive feedback amplifiers are also referred to as ................ . A. stable amplifiers B. regulating amplifiers C. degenerative amplifiers D. regenerative amplifiers

49. What is the important advantage of a FET? A. low noise B. large current gain C. zero input impedance D. high output impedance

42. In high gain amplifiers, introducing negative feedback results in ................. . A. increased gain B. increased noise C. reduced stability D. increased bandwidth

50. MOSFETs are more likely to be damaged by ............. . A. reverse bias B. static electricity C. leakage currents D. coupling capacitors

43. Identify from the given options, the criterion required for oscillations to occur in an amplifier. A. the amplifier must have variable power supply B. the amplifier must be in the cutoff state

51. Choose the correct statement for, “In an SCR ................. .” A. holding current = latching current B. holding current > latching current C. holding current < latching current D. holding current = VGS/R

4 52. Diacs conduct only ............ . B. at 230 V A. at 0 V C. after breakdown D. before breakdown 53. What is IGBT known as? A. current controlled device B. voltage controlled device C. frequency controlled device D. impedance controlled device 54. What are the three main components of a UPS? A. rectifier, battery, inverter B. rectifier, battery, chopper C. rectifier, filter, load resistor D. transformer, rectifier, filter 55. On A. B. C. D.

which principle do LEDs work? phosphorescence luminance electroluminescence photoemission

56. What is the name of the mode when photo diodes are operated with zero bias? A. Photo conductive mode B. Photo resistive mode C. Photo voltaic mode D. Photo emissive mode 57. Identify the functional use of Laser diodes. A. TV remote controls B. fiber optic communications C. display boards D. indicators 58. Identify the universal gates from the given options? A. AND, OR B. AND, NAND C. OR, NOR D. NAND, NOR 59. Identify the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number CAD from the following? A. 1100 1010 1101 B. 1100 0000 1110 C. 1010 1101 1001 D. 1000 0100 0101 60. What is the two’s complement of the binary number 1110? A. 1 B. 10 C. 100 D. 1000 61. Name the device that takes a single input line and routes it to one of several digital output lines. A. Decoder B. Demultiplexer C. Multiplexer D. Encoder

62. The output of a JK flip flop for S = 1 and R = 1 will be ............. . B. 1 A. 0 C. previous state D. toggle condition 63. What is A. over B. over C. over D. over

a Fuse used for? voltage protection current protection use protection heat protection

64. Which component ensures the safety of the line from damage? A. Circuit breaker B. Relay D. Current transformer C. Bus-bar 65. What are the variations in the attenuation of signals known as? A. Modulation B. Equalization C. Interference D. Fading 66. Identify the advantage of modulation usage. A. smaller antenna B. smaller circuit D. lower bandwidth C. lesser power 67. In AM, the carrier power in the carrier is ...... . A. same as the total power B. one tenth of the total power C. two thirds of the total power D. three fourth of the total power 68. What is the other name for FM detector? A. Extractor B. Discriminator C. Differentiator D. Demultiplexer 69. What happens to resistance if strain gauge is subjected to compression? A. It will decrease B. It will increase C. It is not affected D. It first increases and then decreases 70. What is the name given to the Optical fibers that transmit one signal per fiber? A. Monochrome fibers B. Monoptical fibers C. Single mode fibers D. Multi mode fibers 71. What is the aspect ratio for an HD TV? A. 4 : 3 B. 3 : 4 C. 16 : 9 D. 16 : 25 72. What is the joining of Fiber Optic cables together known as? A. Brazing B. Soldering C. Splicing D. Braiding

5 73. What is the interface used to play media from a hard disk on an LED TV? B. Parallel Port A. RS 232 C. USB D. RGB 74. What does a TV remote control commonly use to operate the TV?

A. Infrared LED C. UV transmitter

B. LASER diode D. Bluetooth transmitter

75. Identify the class of operation for the audio amplifier of a digital TV. A. class B B. class AB C. class C D. class D

General Awareness 76. Who among the following was the first Muslim president of India? A. Dr. APJ. Abdul Kalam B. Dr. Zakir Hussain C. Dr. Syed Ahmed Khan D. Dr. Maulana Abulkalam Azad

84. Who bagged the Miss Universe title for the year 2015? A. Ariadna Gutierrez B. Olivia Jordan C. Pia Wurtzbach D. Monika Radulovic

77. Who among the following is the Supreme Commander of the Indian armed forces? A. Chief of Army staff B. Prime Minister D. Defence Minister C. President

85. Which year is declared as the International year of pulses by the UN General Assembly? B. 2012 A. 2015 D. 2016 C. 2014

78. Which of the following is a State subject? A. Agriculture B. Electricity D. Forests C. News papers

86. Who was crowned as Femina Miss India World 2016? A. Sushruthi Krishna B. Priyadarshini Chatterjee C. Roshmitha Harimurthy D. Natasha Singh

79. From which year did the Government of India implement Universal Adult Franchise? A. 1951 B. 1956 C. 1967 D. 1978 80. Who among the following is referred to as the permanent executive in India? A. President B. Prime Minister C. Civil servants D. Union council of Ministers

87. Which award did Sania Mirza receive in the year 2015? A. Dyanchand Award B. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award C. Padmasri Award D. Dronacharya Award

81. Which bank has launched the First Contactless Multi-Currency Forex Card service? A. SBI Bank B. AXIS Bank C. ICICI Bank D. HSBC Bank

88. Which Indian state is to confer the Rani Lakshmi Bai Award on Sakshi Malik, who won the bronze medal at the Rio Olympics 2016? A. Maharashtra B. Madhya Pradesh C. Uttar Pradesh D. Punjab

82. Which actress is the brand ambassador of MAA – Mothers’ Absolute Affection programme launched to promote breastfeeding? A. Aishwarya Rai B. Madhuri Dixit C. Priyanka Chopra D. Sridevi

89. Which American artistic gymnast won the gold medal in the Floor Exercise event at the Rio Olympics 2016? A. Shannon Miller B. Simone Biles C. Shawn Johnson D. Amy Tinkler

83. Which gas accelerates the artificial ripening of green fruits? A. Carbon monoxide B. Methane C. Carbon dioxide D. Acetylene

90. Which nation won the gold medal for soccer in the 2016 Olympics? A. China B. UK C. Brazil D. France

6 91. Who was the recipient of the Nobel Prize for Literature in the year 2014? B. Patrick Modiano A. Alice Munro C. Mo Yan D. Bob Dylan 92. Who is the author of ‘War and Peace’? A. Milton B. Shakespeare D. Leo Tolstoy C. John Keats 93. Who was the author of the US National Anthem? B. Francis Scott Key A. Mark Twain C. Edgar Allen Poe D. Stephen King

94. From where was Agni-IV test-fired in January 2017? A. Abdul Kalam Wheeler Island B. Sriharikota C. Pokhran D. Kalpakkam 95. Who was called as the ‘Man of Blood and Iron’? B. Otto Van Bismarck A. Hitler C. Stalin D. Winston Churchill

Quantitative Ability 96. From the options given below, find the least 6-digit number which is exactly divisible by 30, 36, 48 and 72? A. 100070 B. 100060 C. 100080 D. 100090 97. X can do 1/4 of a work in 12 days, Y can do 60% of the same work in 60 days and Z can do 1/3 of the same work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first? B. Y A. X D. X & Y both C. Z

98. X varies inversely as square of Y. Given that y = 2 for x = 1, then the value of x for y = 6 will be: B. 1/3 A. 3 D. 1/9 C. 9 99. If the radius of a circle is diminished by 10%, then its area in diminished by: A. 10% B. 19% C. 20% D. 36% 100. What is the vulgar fraction of 0.66? B. 4/9 A. 2/3 D. 33/99 C. 66/100

Reasoning & Mental Ability 101. Pointing to a photograph, Lakshmi says, “He is the son of the only son of my grandfather.” How is the man in the photograph related to Lakshmi? A. Brother B. Uncle D. Sister C. Cousin 102. ‘Moderate’ is related to ‘Extreme’ in the same way as ‘Occasionally’ is to .................... . A. Frequently B. Rare C. Rude D. Weak 103. Complete the following analogy: 15 : 3375 : : 20 : ? A. 1200 B. 2400 C. 4000 D. 8000 104. I have a money pouch containing ` 700. There are equal number of 25 paise coins, 50 paise

coins and one rupee coins. How many of each are there? A. 195 B. 200 C. 400 D. 500 105. Arrange the words to form a meaningful sequence, considering the Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs starting from the lowest to the highest. 1. Physiological needs 2. Self-Actualization 3. Safety needs 4. Esteem needs 5. Love needs/Belongingness A. 12345 B. 13542 C. 13245 D. 14523 106. Complete the series: 8, 24, 72, 216, ?

7 A. 648 C. 898

B. 567 D. 216

107. If in a certain code, COULD5 is written as BNTKC5 and MARG IN6 is written as LZQFHM6, how will MOULDING8 be written in the same code? A. CHMFINTK8 B. NITKHCMF8 C. MURTHY8 D. LNTKCHMF8 108. If in a cartain code, CHARCOAL is written as 45164913 and MORALE is written as 296137, how will CHROME be written in the same code? B. 469572 A. 456927 D. 454572 C. 423247

109. Rahul creates a live grass clock with the hour hand pointing East at 6 pm. In which direction will the minute hand be pointing at 9.00 pm? A. South B. East D. West C. North 110. Look at the matrix given below. The numbers follow a pattern, row-wise and column-wise. Fill in the missing number.

42 23 37 A. 89 C. 4

8 10 ?

38 28 39 B. 1 D. 90

General English Directions (Qs. No. 111 to 113): Read the following passage and answer the questions below: Before telephones came along, most people communicated over long distances by mail. However, another invention came just before the telephone that allowed long-distance messages to be sent just as quickly: the electrical telegraph. It was not able to transmit actual spoken words, but the telegraph could send coded signals along an electrical wire. These signals, called Morse code after one of the inventors of the telegraph, were then translated back into words at the receiving end. Samuel Morse, a famous artist in the early 1800s, was also interested in electricity, one of the newest discoveries of that time. During the 1830s, Morse worked with another inventor, Alfred Vail, to develop a way of using electricity for communication. They devised a simple system in which electricity was used to create short and long sounds that would travel through wires. These two sounds could be grouped in different ways to symbolize letters, numbers, and punctuation marks. On May 24, 1844, Morse and Vail sent their first long-distance message. It was transmitted from Baltimore, Maryland, and received in Washington, D.C. This demonstration was a breakthrough for communication technology and caused telegraph wires to be run across the America. 111. One disadvantage of the telegraph when compared to the telephone was that ............. .

A. B. C. D.

it it it it

was slow could not transmit actual spoken words was ineffective could be used only for short distances

112. One of the newest discoveries of the early 1800s was ............. . A. the telephone B. mail D. punctuation marks C. electricity 113. Which of the following statements is true? A. In Morse Code, sounds that travel through electric wires are translated back into words at the receiving end. B. In Morse Code, words that travel through electric wires are translated back into sounds at the receiving end. C. In Morse Code, sounds that travel through electric wires are translated into words in the beginning. D. In Morse Code, words that travel through electric wires are translated into sounds in the beginning. 114. Choose the appropriate passive voice form of the sentence below: Look! They have repaired the TV. A. Look! Somebody has repaired the TV. B. Look! The TV has been repaired. C. Look at the TV which is repaired. D. Have you seen the TV which has been repaired?

8 115. Choose the most appropriate preposition to fill the blank: Neha speaks French ........ German and Spanish. B. beside A. since C. in addition D. besides 116. Identify the adverb in the following sentence: He has been shamefully treated. A. shamefully B. he C. treated D. has been 117. Convert the sentence into indirect speech: He told her, “I can’t see you.” A. He told her that he won’t see her. B. He told her that he couldn’t see her. C. He told her I can’t see you. D. He told her that I don’t see her.

118. Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb. The students of class VII ............. a skit on the occasion of Women’s Day. B. has performed A. was performed C. performed D. were performed 119. I don’t care if he come to my house or not. The underlined word is a ............... . A. subordinating conjunction B. co-ordinating conjunction C. pronoun D. gerund 120. Identify the adjective in the following sentence: The museum sustained heavy damage during the earthquake. B. damage A. during D. heavy C. sustained

ANSWERS 1 C 11 C 21 A 31 A 41 D 51 C 61 B 71 C 81 B 91 B 101 A 111 B

2 C 12 A 22 D 32 B 42 D 52 C 62 D 72 C 82 B 92 D 102 A 112 C

3 B 13 B 23 A 33 B 43 D 53 B 63 B 73 C 83 D 93 B 103 D 113 A

4 B 14 D 24 D 34 C 44 B 54 A 64 B 74 A 84 C 94 A 104 C 114 B

5 B 15 A 25 A 35 C 45 A 55 C 65 D 75 D 85 D 95 B 105 B 115 D

6 D 16 C 26 D 36 A 46 C 56 C 66 A 76 B 86 B 96 C 106 A 116 A

7 C 17 B 27 B 37 A 47 C 57 B 67 C 77 C 87 B 97 C 107 D 117 B

8 B 18 D 28 B 38 B 48 B 58 D 68 B 78 A 88 C 98 D 108 A 118 C

9 A 19 A 29 A 39 D 49 A 59 A 69 A 79 A 89 B 99 B 109 D 119 A

10 C 20 B 30 C 40 D 50 B 60 B 70 C 80 C 90 C 100 A 110 C 120 D

(2095) Paper-2018 & 2017—2

9

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS 2. We have, Voltage ‘V’ = 24 V Resistance ‘R’ = 120  We know that, V = IR 24 = 120 × I

(Ohm’s law)

24 120 I = 0.2 A I = 200 mA [ 1A = 1000 mA] 4. Given that, Capacitance = 1000 µ Farad 1µ Farad = 10–6 Farad   Capacitance = 1000 × 10–6 Farads = 0.001 Farads 33. We have, Emitter current (IE) = 1 mA Base current (IB) = 0.01 mA Collector current (IC) = Emitter current (IE) – Base current (IB) = 1 – 0.01 = 0.99 mA 59. (CAD)16 We can written this (12 10 13)16 Binary Equivalent of (13)16 = (1101)2 I=

2 13 2 6 2 3 1 Binary Equivalent of (10)16 = (1010)2

2 10 2 5 2 2 1 Binary Equivalent of (12)16 = (1100)2 2 12 2 6 2 3 1 Therefore (CAD)16 = (1100 1010 1101)2

60. We have, Binary Number = (1110)2 One’s Complement = 0001 1 carry Two’s Complement = 0 0 0 1 +1 0010 Therefore Two’s Complement of (1110) 2 is 10. 96. We know that, Smallest six digit number = 100000 LCM (30, 36, 48, 72) = 720 720 100000 138 720 2800 2160 6400 5760 640

Least six-digit number divisible by 30, 36, 48 and 72 is =100000 + (720 – 640) = 100000 + 80 = 100080.

1 of a work = 12 days 4 X can do complete the whole work = 48 days Y can do 60% of work = 60 days Y can do complete the whole work = 100 days Z can do 1/3 of the work = 13 days Z can do complete the whole work = 39 days Therefore Z can complete the work first.

97. X can do

98. Given that,

X

XY2 = X 1Y 12 = We have, Y1 = Y2 = 1 × (2)2 =

4 = 36

K 1 2  X = Y2 Y Where K is a constant k X2Y22 2, X1 = 1, 6, X2 = ? X2 × (6)2 1 X2  X2 = . 9

10 107. As,

99. Let the initial radius = r Radius after diminish by 10% =

9 r 10 –1

81 2 r 2   r 100  100 100  81 = =  100 = 19%. r 2 100

101.

U –1

L

D

–1

5 Same

–1

–1

–1

Z

L

–1

Q

–1

F

Same

–1

H

M

6

Similarly, M

100. We have, Fraction = 0.66

66 2  99 3

O –1

B N T K C 5 A R G I N 6

M

Required Area diminished

Vulgar fraction =

C –1

–1

O

–1

T

N

L

L

U –1

–1

K

I

D –1

–1

C

N –1

H

M

G

8 Same

–1

F

8

108. As, C

H

A

R

C

O

A

L

4 O

5 R

1 A

6

1

3

L

4 E

9

M

2

9

6

1

3

7

Grandfather

Only Son

er

Lakshmi

th Fa Sister

Son Photograph

Brother

In the coding each letter is coded by individual digit from 1 to 9 directly. In the same way CHROME is coded as

Clearly from diagram the man in the photograph is brother of Lakshmi. 102. As, ‘Moderate’ is the Antonym word of ‘Extreme’ similarly ‘Occasionally’ is the Antonym word of ‘Frequently’. 103. 15 : 3375 : : 20 : 8000 (15)

3

(20)

72

24 ×3

×3

216 ×3

H

R

O

M

E

4

5

6

9

2

7

109.

12

3

104. Let each coins are x x x   x = ` 700 Then, 4 2 x  2x  4x = 700 4 7x = 700 4 700  4 x= = 400 7 Therefore each coins are 400. 106. 8

C

648 ×3

In the series, next term is three times of the predecessor term. Therefore 648 will be at the place of question mark.

9

N

3 6

E

6 p.m. 12 9

3 6 9 p.m.

Clearly from the figure, at 9 p.m. minutes hand pointing towards West direction. 110. In the given Matrix, middle column numbers are two times the difference of First column numbers and third column numbers respectively. Therefore, missing number is = (39 – 37) × 2 = 4.

11 Previous Paper (Solved)

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC)

Maintainer (Electronic Mechanic) Exam 2017 General Knowledge A. PowerPoint C. Image file

1. Which of the following is a Legal Right? A. Right to property B. Right to freedom C. Right to liberty D. Right to equality

B. Excel Spreadsheet D. Movie file

10. Which Indian State is famous for ‘Madhubani’, a style of folk painting? A. West Bengal B. Bihar C. Rajasthan D. Goa

2. Which country has the political and cultural journal ‘New Statesman’? A. Canada B. America C. Germany D. United Kingdom

11. In which part of Rajasthan, the famous Maru festival is celebrated in which the camel race, polo match, puppet dancers, jugglers and long mustache are seen? A. Kota B. Jaipur C. Jodhpur D. Jaisalmer

3. What is the name of India’s 29th State? A. Jharkhand B. Uttarakhand C. Chhattisgarh D. Telangana 4. Which type of disorder is Dyslexia? A. Reading related disorder B. Mental disorder C. Speech disorder D. Auditory disorder

12. The National Emergency of 1975 was declared by then President of India, his name was: A. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy B. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed C. V.V. Giri D. Zakir Hussain

5. In which year Jharkhand state came into existence? A. 2000 B. 2009 C. 1990 D. 2005

13. ‘Jnanpith Award’ belongs to which area? B. Literature A. Social service D. Dance C. Music

6. Mikhail Kalashnikov—a Russian general and military engineer who is famous for making one of the following: A. LR 300 B. AR-15 D. AK-47 C. M 16 rifle

14. Who was the recipient of the first Tagore Culture Harmony Award of 2012? A. Asha Bhosle B. Jubin Mehta C. Zakir Hussain D. Pt. Ravi Shankar

7. Which one of the following sports with Santosh Trophy is associated? A. Cricket B. Hockey C. Football D. Kabaddi

15. According to which article of the constitution, President of India can declare National Emergency? A. 356 B. 265 C. 368 D. 365

8. ______ is not a constitutional body. A. Finance Commission B. Human Rights Commission C. Public Service Commission D. Election Commission

16. In which article of Indian Constitution, The rights of Constitutional remedies have been mentioned? A. 14 B. 32 C. 22 D. 18

9. Which of the following file has the extension of ‘MOV’? 11

About the Book The present book has been specially published for the aspirants of ‘Maintainer (Electronic Mechanic)’ Recruitment Exam organised by DMRC. The book comprises, along with the Specialised Study and Practice Material, Solved Question Papers to make you familiar with the exam pattern. Detailed Explanatory Answers have also been provided for Selected Questions for Better Understanding. The book contains ample amount of Study & Practice Material on all the subjects from the point of view of the exam. All the practice questions have been solved by respective subject experts with due diligence. It is believed, the book will prove very useful for study, practice and during precious moments before the exam. The book is highly recommended to Sharpen your Problem Solving Skills with thorough practice of actual exam-style questions and numerous practice questions provided in the book, and prepare yourself to face the exam with Confidence, Successfully. While the specialised study and practice material of this book Paves the Way for your Success, your own intelligent study and practice with it will ensure you a Perfect Start for a Bright Career with DMRC.

Other Useful Books for this Exam

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Book Code: R-1716 ISBN: 978-81-942336-3-3

Book Code: R-273 ISBN: 978-93-5012-776-6

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Book Code: R-1121 ISBN: 978-93-86298-39-3

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