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CONTENTS •

Mock Test–1

1-34

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Mock Test–2

1-36

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Mock Test–3

1-40

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Mock Test–4

1-42

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Mock Test–5

1-36

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Mock Test–6

1-40

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Mock Test–7

1-40

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Mock Test–8

1-37

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Mock Test–9

1-46

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Mock Test–10

1-38

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Mock Test–11

1-40

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Mock Test–12

1-40

MOCK TEST – 1

1

MOCK TEST – 1 ENGLISH INCLUDING COMPREHENSION Direction for questions 1 to 32: The passage given below is followed by a set of questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question. Passage – 1 The NITI Aayog's Sustainable Development Goals Index for 2019, released on Monday, does not reveal any surprising information. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Karnataka are joined by Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa as the best performers while the northern/north-central and northeastern States have been sluggish in achieving the U.N.mandated goals by 2030. Poor performers such as Uttar Pradesh have shown discernible advances in the indices measured between 2018-19 - especially in adopting cleaner energy and improving sanitation. But the regional divide is stark in basic livelihood goals such as "eradication of poverty", and "good health and well-being" or even in measures such as "industry, innovation and infrastructure". This points to variances in both State governance and in administrative structures and implementation of welfare policies. The South, led by Kerala and Tamil Nadu, has done much more in orienting administrative institutions to deliver on basic welfare, leading to actions on health care, education, poverty eradication and hunger, with a governance structure tuned to competitively monitoring actions on these fronts. The converse is true of northern states Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, where outcomes have remained relatively poor despite there not being much of a difference in the governance structure. The obvious answer to the puzzle could be the presence of historical socio-political movements that have resulted in greater circulation of elites in power and which have addressed issues related to welfare more thoroughly in the South Kerala and T.N in particular. Yet even these States need to go further in reaching the UN's SDGs and achieving the living standards of both the first world and other developing nations. The western States, especially Gujarat and Maharashtra, are also better off in economic growth and industry, indicating a diversified economy, higher employment ratios, skilled labour and better entrepreneurial culture. A major fault-line in India is in achieving gender equality, where barring middling performers such as Himachal Pradesh, Kerala and Jammu & Kashmir, the rest of the country falls short. Low sex ratio (896 females per 1,000 males), poor labour force participation and presence in managerial positions (only 17.5% and 30%, according

to the report), high level of informality of labour, a major gender pay gap (females earn 78% of wages earned by males in regular salaried employment), lack of adequate representation in governance (14.4% in Parliament, but 44.4% in local government) besides high crime rates against women and girls are among the major national level indicators that have contributed to this. States need to climb a mountain to achieve gender equality, but immediate steps such as enhancing women's participation in governance through parliamentary reservations would go a long way in addressing several of the issues faced by them. 1. Which of the following choices best captures the essence of the passage? (a) Slow pace of development and economic growth in Northern India as compared to Southern India. (b) Differences in the governance model of Northern states to that of Southern and Western states. (c) The stark difference between North and South India in achieving UN's SDGs and the common problem of gender inequality. (d) Emphasizing the difference between the living standards of Indians to that of developed countries. 2. As used in the passage, the word "sluggish" most nearly means (a) wicked (b) slow (c) rough (d) steady 3. Which of the following reason have been cited in the passage for the better performance of the Southern States? (a) The policies of the Southern states are exponentially better than others. (b) The presence of socio-political movements in these states results in better distribution of welfare. (c) The efficient nature of the governance system of these states. (d) Presence of elitist in the society of these states that are committed to distributing their wealth in state wide charities. 4. The passage puts forth its points using which of the following? (a) Comparative factual details. (b) Presumptive analytical details. (c) Hypothetical statistical details. (d) Official Government details.

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MOCK TEST – 1

5. Which of the following attributes have been highlighted about the western states? (a) High growth and industrial development. (b) Low labour participation rates and high automation. (c) Better lifestyle standards for an average individual. (d) High unemployment and gender inequality. 6. Which of the following can be inferred from the advice of parliamentary reservations for women in India? (a) The author believes that reserving seats could help in addressing the issue of gender inequality. (b) The author believes that women can't make positions for themselves in parliament on pure merit. (c) The author believ es that reserv ation of parliamentary seats is the only way to solve gender inequality in the society. (d) The author is seeking symbolic solutions for solving the problem of gender inequality. 7. As mentioned in the passage, the word "orienting" is synonymous to (a) changing (b) providing (c) adjusting (d) causing 8. Which of the following is a major factor in extending the gender gap in the society? (a) The persistent need for the society to stick to patriarchal values (b) Participation of women in the work force. (c) Low investment on infrastructure and industry. (d) Crimes against women and young girls. Passage – 2 For an economy that is tottering, a big bang announcement from the government can sometimes work to turn around sentiment. The unveiling by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Tuesday of a mega push to infrastructure investment adding up to Rs. 102 lakh crore over the next five years belongs in this category. Projects in energy, roads, railways and urban infrastructure under the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) have been identified by a task force. About 42% of such identif ied projects are already under implementation, 19% are under development and 31% are at the conceptual stage. The NIP task force appears to have gone project-byproject, assessing each for viability and relevance in consultation with the States. Considering that the NIP will be like a window to the future, a constant review becomes paramount if this is not to degenerate into a mere collation and listing of projects. A periodic review, as promised by the Finance Ministry, is necessary. The government's push on infrastructure development will not only enable ease of living - such as metro trains in cities and towns - but also create jobs and increase

demand for primary commodities such as cement and steel. From this perspective, this push to invest in infrastructure is welcome. Identifying the projects to be put on the pipeline is the easy part. Implementing and commissioning them will be the more difficult one. There are a few hurdles that the NIP task force needs to watch out for. First, the financing plan assumes that the Centre and the States will fund 39% each while the private sector will chip in with 22% of the outlay. Going by the present fiscal situation, it will be no small challenge for the Centre to raise Rs.39 lakh crore, even if it is over the next five years. The financial position of States is even more perilous. Second, the Rs.22 lakh crore expected from private investment also looks steep considering the lack of appetite for fresh investment by the private sector in the last few years. In fact, this factor has been a major drag on economic growth. Given the scale of investment, debt will play an important role and it remains to be seen if banks have gotten over their apprehensions on infrastructure financing as a major part of their bad loans originated there. Finally, cooperation from States becomes very important in implementing infrastructure projects. The experience on this count has not been very happy till now. While these are genuine obstacles that the task force needs to manage, these should not detract from the need for a concerted effort to invest in infrastructure. The key will be following up and reviewing the pipeline at regular intervals. 9. The passage is primarily concerned with (a) the new push by the Centre for increasing industrial demand for steel and cement. (b) the new infrastructure mega-plan by the Centre and its financial viability. (c) the central government's focus on infrastructure development as a remedy for reversing the economy slowdown. (d) the details of functioning of the Finance Ministry and the way it coordinates with the states. 10. As mentioned in the passage, the word "window" most nearly means (a) access (b) opening (c) opportunity (d) possibility 11. Which of the following suggests that the NIP has done its work quite thoroughly? (a) The NIP has quite effectively distributed the cost of the projects among various sources. (b) The NIP has planned such a massiv e infrastructure project out of scratch. (c) The task force has assessed the viability and relevance project-by-project. (d) The NIP task force has even planned the future details of numerous projects.

MOCK TEST – 1

12. The government's investment in infrastructure has been welcomed by the author from which point of view? (a) This investment will help in the production of steel and cement in the country. (b) This investment will create jobs and boost demand for primary goods. (c) This investment will help the economy of the country. (d) This investment will increase the revenue base of the government in the future. 13. Which of the following factor has been a major cause of the derailment of economic growth? (a) Unenthusiastic government spending at the Central level. (b) Non-cooperation by the states' government in investing on infrastructure. (c) Lack of fresh investments by the private sector. (d) Lack of coordination between the states and the centre. 14. Which of the following indicated that the NIP wants the centre and states to completely cooperate on this investment plan? (a) The equal share of expenditure for both parties. (b) Lack of any provision in the planning that favours the Centre. (c) NIP's planning missing any possibility for undue access to the centre over these projects. (d) A periodic review over the projects by the Finance ministry. 15. As used in the passage, the word "perilous" is synonymous to (a) innocuous (b) menacing (c) impeccable (d) dragoon 16. W hy could f inancing be a problem f or this infrastructure investment push? (a) Lack of funds with the banks as they are struggling with bad loans. (b) Failure of the private sector to lend money from the banks. (c) Government policies which make lending on a mass scale too risky for the banks. (d) Banking sector's apprehensions regarding the bad loans emerging from infrastructure financing. Passage – 3 While the rhetoric of collective responsibility to achieve "ambitious outcomes" in terms of climate action to address the "climate emergency" stands questioned in the 25th Conference of Parties, the grim realities of the inequalities between countries and the evasion of responsibilities and commitments by the developed countries point towards the fundamental role and continued importance of the United Nations Framework

3

Convention on Climate Change that remains wider in its scope and broader in its vision than the Paris Agreement. The developed countries are also seeking to manipulate the science policy interface in an attempt to sideline the equity and climate justice-related perspectives of the developing countries. The 25th Conference of Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, the annual climate summit of the countries that are signatories to the Convention, recently concluded at Madrid in December 2019. Instead of being hailed as a milestone, almost universally, it has been held to be a failure. A remarkable range of opinions appears to concur on this view, from the United Nations Secretary General to a number of governments, including the European Union and some of the small island states, and a range of nongovernmental organizations, including some of the biggest international players. Referring to the year-long wave of public action preceding COP25, especially by students and youth in the developed countries, this narrative of failure has held all countries responsible for the lack of "ambitious" outcomes adequate to dealing with the "climate emergency." While some accounts have justifiably noted the role of the United States in the overall outcome, others have also targeted Brazil, and China, and even India by innuendo. This narrative of collective responsibility for the outcome has dominated the global media too and has been uncritically echoed in the national media in countries like India. But if COP25 was indeed the failure it is perhaps justifiably held to be, why indeed did it fail and what precisely was the anatomy of the failure? Despite the incessant rhetoric of "ambition" to face the "climate emergency," why indeed were the outcomes so meagre, and where does the responsibility lie? Unfortunately, the understanding of the challenge of global warming has been made considerably more difficult by the widespread tendency to ignore the reality of the grossly unequal world in which we live. The UNFCCC recognizes this in its explicit articulation of the principles of equity and common but differentiated responsibilities as the basis for climate action, and thus, calls on the developed countries to take the lead. However, all too often the argument is made that these principles and their implementation in the differentiation between developed and developing countries in climate action has somehow become outdated. 17. Which of the following did not hail the 25th Conference of Parties of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change as a failure? (a) United Nations Secretary General (b) European Union (c) International Monetary Fund (d) Non-Governmental Organizations

4

MOCK TEST – 1

18. What is the opinion of the author regarding the coverage of COP25 by the Indian media? (a) The author has criticized the Indian media for not covering the COP25. (b) The author has criticized the Indian media for not being opinionated enough about the issue. (c) The author has distinguished the Indian media from other international media. (d) The author has celebrated the work of Indian media as opposed to international media. 19. With reference to the passage, what is the meaning of the term 'signatories'? (a) The nations which have bound themselves under a convention. (b) The ambassadors and dignitaries representing the nations at a convention. (c) The officials who have drafted the convention. (d) The heads of state who have signed the treaty. 20. Why has the author held countries responsible for the failure of COP25? (a) There has been inadequacy of diligent efforts from the nations towards climate emergencies. (b) The countries have kept their financial needs over the environmental issues. (c) The developing nations have shifted the blame towards developed nations and vice versa. (d) Many countries hav e rescinded f rom environmental conventions recently. 21. What is the reason behind developed countries seeking to manipulate the science policy interface? (a) They want to discredit the authenticity of scientific sources of information. (b) They want to create an atmosphere of scientific progression and technological advancement. (c) They want to allow their domestic industrial giants to thrive at the cost of developing nations. (d) They want to discount the principles of equity and climate justice with respect to developing nations. 22. What is the meaning of the term 'innuendo' as used in the passage? (a) An outright challenge to the authority of a nation. (b) A subtle warning using diplomatic language. (c) A derogatory statement made in a disguised manner. (d) A friendly suggestion with an evil motive. 23. What is the tone of the author in the second last paragraph? (a) Rhetorical

(b) Critical

(c) Inquisitorial

(d) Metaphysical

24. What is the main idea of the passage? (a) The reasons behind the failure of COP25. (b) The lack of media coverage on environmental conventions. (c) The indifferent attitude of world leaders towards climate change. (d) The idea behind the constitution of COP25. Passage – 4 A recent incident precipitated the crisis in the already distressed sector. The Supreme Court's 24 October 2019 (Union of India v Association of Unified Telecom Service Providers of India) ruling ordered the telecom companies to pay up all that they owed in the form of levies, arrears, penalties and interest payments penalties through the last one and half decades. The dispute was on how to calculate the gross adjusted revenues from which the government levies a tax. The companies contended that only their revenues arising out of their use of spectrum be considered. The Department of Telecommunications (DoT), however, also included all their indirect earnings that form the adjusted gross revenue (AGR). This would include, for example, dividends and revenue from sale of handsets that are bundled with services, interest income, scrap sale or even rental income. The Supreme Court upheld the DoT's view in its October order. This definition of AGR spikes up the arrears, penalties and interest payments to a value close to Rs. 92,000 crore to be paid by the telecom firms in three months. This value, in an industry that is already saddled with a huge debt, is a matter of serious concern. While Bharti Airtel and Vodafone-Idea have to pay Rs. 29,000 crore and Rs. 33,000 crore respectively, Reliance Jio, which is a new entrant, needs to pay Rs. 13,000 crore, due to its purchase of R Com's liabilities. Vodafone-Idea's cash reserves do not even match up to the penalty amount, making it seriously consider closing down. VodafoneIdea reported a loss of almost Rs. 50,000 crore in the quarter ending in September 2019 (compared with Rs. 5,000 crore last year in the same quarter). This is, by many accounts, the largest loss by an Indian company. Airtel's story is also woeful, reporting a loss of Rs. 23,000 crore. These numbers are staggeringly high, enough to break a company down. Price wars in the last two years had led to a considerable bleeding of the incumbents already. Vodafone-Idea's future seems uncertain. Since the company owes huge debts to public banks, and has a number of dependent vendors, a ripple effect may hurt the overall economy. Policymakers are genuinely worried and companies are trying hard to strike a deal with the government. A committee of secretaries was formed to consider a relief package for the beleaguered industry. They have granted a two-year moratorium on the

MOCK TEST – 1

spectrum payments, offering some cash flow relief, but do not touch the Supreme Court-imposed penalty. Estimates reveal that this package does not make much of a difference. Conversations on the bailout have begun. While this may not be a good sign, there is a need to dig deeper. 25. What was the dispute which was rectified by the Supreme Court in the judgement? (a) The liability of the companies to pay the tax levied on them. (b) The methodology of computing the gross adjusted revenues which was taxed. (c) The period in which the levies, arrears, penalties etc. would have to be paid. (d) The rationality of the quantum of tax levied on the companies. 26. Which of the following would not be a part of the adjusted gross revenue of the companies? (a) Interest income (b) Scrap sale (c) Insurance income (d) Rental income 27. In what context has the term 'ruling' been used in the passage? (a) A diktat of the politically superior to the inferior. (b) A judicial decision by the highest court of law of in the country. (c) The opinion of the judges on a social issue. (d) The accountability and the principle of check and balance between organs of the government. 28. Why does the future for Vodafone-Idea look bleak after the Supreme Court's judgement? (a) They are burdened with the maximum amount of penalty. (b) They became the biggest conglomerate in the telecom sector post-merger. (c) They do not have the cash reserves for discharging the penalties. (d) They are already running a loss-making venture. 29. What is the meaning of the term 'moratorium' as used in the passage? (a) The suing of company by its creditors. (b) The governmental aid provided to rebuild the company (c) The act of declaring a company bankrupt (d) A temporary measure to stop the company from selling its assets. 30. Which of the following can be inferred from the use of the phrase 'ripple effect' by the author? (a) The effects of the Supreme Court judgement would be seen in future judgements as well. (b) The impact on the telecom companies would permeate into other factions of the economy.

5

(c) The default made by the telecom companies would be replicated by companies of other sectors. (d) The government would demand defaulted tax from other companies too. 31. Why does the author think that the package would not make much of a difference? (a) It does not target the penalties imposed by the Supreme Court. (b) It does not prevent the telecom companies from bailing out. (c) It gave a moratorium period of just two years. (d) It allowed certain degree of asset transactions. 32. What is the main idea of the passage? (a) The impact on telecom companies by the penalty imposed on them by the Supreme Court. (b) The economic condition of the telecom companies of the country. (c) The merger of Vodafone and Idea in the telecom industry. (d) The future of telecom industry in the country.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS Passage – 1 The Election Commission of India declared the [1] led by Meghalaya Chief Minister Conrad K. Sangma as a national party. This made the [1], formed by his father and former Lok Sabha Speaker Purno A. Sangma in 2013, the first from the north-eastern region to earn the tag. The party has been granted recognition under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, [2]. Registration of political parties is governed by the provisions of [3] of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. An association seeking registration under the said Section has to submit an application to the Commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation, as per the guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of the powers conferred by [4] of the Constitution of India and [3] of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. In its order, the ECI said that the [1] was given the national party status for fulfilling conditions such as polling more than 6% of the total votes in the last general election and being recognised as a State party in at least four States. 33. Which of the following parties has been replaced with '[1]' in the passage above? (a) North-East Democratic Alliance (b) National People's Party (c) North-East People's Front (d) People's Democratic Alliance

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MOCK TEST – 1

34. Which of the following years has been replaced with '[2]' in the passage above? (a) 1951 (b) 1956 (c) 1968 (d) 1991 35. At present, how many National Parties are there in India? (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 36. W hich of the following sections is related to governance of the registration of political parties whose name has been replaced with '[3]' in the passage above? (a) Section 5A (b) Section 9A (c) Section 29A (d) Section 7A 37. The Election Commission of India operates under the authority of which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution whose name has been redacted with [4]? (a) Article 321 (b) Article 280 (c) Article 312 (d) Article 324 Passage – 2 Mauritius called the [1] an "illegal colonial occupier", after it ignored a UN mandated deadline to return the [2] Islands, a small archipelago in the Indian Ocean, to Mauritius. The United Nations had given [1] six months to process the transfer. Mauritius has argued that the [2] Islands has been a part of its territory since at least the 18th century, till the [1] broke the archipelago away from Mauritius in 1965 and the islands of Aldabra, Farquhar, and Desroches from the Seychelles in the region to form the British Indian Ocean Territory. In June 1976, after the Seychelles gained independence from the [1], the islands of Aldabra, Farquhar, and Desroches were returned by the [1]. After independence, Mauritius had proposed an exchange allowing the [1] to let the [3] use the [2] Islands for defence purposes till those needs ceased, in exchange for increasing the quota of sugar imports into the [3], a move that would contribute to Mauritius' economy. The [1] rejected the proposal stating that the [3] could not be involved in any treaty despite using the islands themselves. 38. Which of the following countries has been replaced with '[1]' in the passage above? (a) USA (b) United Kingdom (c) Japan (d) France 39. Who was sworn in as the President of Mauritius on 2nd December 2019? (a) Pravind Kumar Jugnauth (b) Prithvirajsing Roopun

40. What is the name of the Island whose name has been replaced with '[2]' in the passage above? (a) Diego Garcia

(b) Pemba Island

(c) Chagos Islands

(d) Praslin

41. Which of the following countries has been replaced with '[3]' in the passage above? (a) USA

(b) China

(c) India

(d) France

42. Which of the following is a factually accurate statement in relation to Mauritius? (a) Mauritius is an island nation in the Indian Ocean about 500 kilometres off the southwest coast of the African continent. (b) The capital and largest city is Port Louis. (c) Mauritius adopted a new constitution and independence was proclaimed on 12 March 1978. (d) All of the above Passage – 3 Four pilots from the Indian Air Force (IAF) will leave for [1] this month to receive training as astronauts of [2], the first Indian crewed flight to space. India plans to have its own space station and modalities for it will be worked out after the first manned mission, scheduled for August 2022. Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced in August 2018, [2] is the Rs. 10,000-crore Indian human space flight scheduled for 2022. It is designed to have 3-7 crew members spend 3-7 days in space in a 400-km orbit. On 25 October 2019, ISRO' and Glavcosmos signed a contract to evaluate the possibility of using [1] support systems and thermal control for [2]. The first phase of this programme is to develop and fly the 3.7-ton spacecraft called [2] with capacity to carry a 3-member crew in low Earth orbit and safely return to Earth after a mission duration of a few orbits to two days. The first crewed flight is planned for December 2021. The extendable version of the spaceship will allow flights up to seven days, rendezvous and docking capability. 43. In the above passage, the name of the mission has been redacted with '[2]'. What is the name of the mission? (a) Chandrayaan-3

(b) Aditya L1 mission

(c) Gaganyaan

(d) Mangalyaan-2

44. What is the name of the country whose name has been replaced with '[1]' in the passage above? (a) Israel (b) Japan

(c) Marie Cyril Eddy Boissezon

(c) Russia

(d) Ameenah Gurib-Fakim

(d) USA

MOCK TEST – 1

45. The mission referred in the above passage will be launched from which of the following space stations? (a) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (b) Satish Dhawan Space Centre (c) Abdul Kalam Island (d) Thumba, Kerala 46. If the mission [2] referred in the above passage successful, India will be the (a) world's third nation capable of sending people to space (b) world's fourth nation capable of sending people to space (c) world's fifth nation capable of sending people to space (d) world's sixth nation capable of sending people to space 47. The International Space Station (ISS) is a joint project between five participating space agencies. Which of the following space agencies is not a participating in the ISS? (a) Roscosmos

(b) JAXA

(c) CSA

(d) ISRO Passage – 4

After two consecutive months of contraction in September and October, Goods and Services Tax (GST) collections in December (for November sales) rose over the Rs. 1-lakh crore mark, a growth of 8.9 per cent year-over-year. In November too, the GST mop-up had topped Rs. 1 lakh crore, but December figures were keenly awaited since the November collections were largely attributed to higher festive sales. In December, GST collections at Rs 1,03,184 crore were marginally lower than the previous month, but a rise for the second month in a row indicates improvement in revenue growth and a higher compliance due to enforcement of more anti-evasion measures and a cap on input tax credit. Until December 31, as many as 81.21 lakh GSTR 3B (monthly summary returns) were filed, 4.3 per cent more than 77.83 lakh in November. Also, a cap on input tax credit at 20 per cent of the eligible credit for businesses effective October helped in higher collections. This cap, which was only for buyers whose suppliers did not upload invoices, prevented fraudulent claims and revenue leakage, said tax officials. 48. Under the Goods and Service Tax slabs, which of the following is the maximum tax charged on goods and services? (a) 25%

(b) 26%

(c) 27%

(d) 28%

7

49. Goods and Services Tax (GST) came into effect from (a) April 1, 2017

(b) July 1, 2017

(c) October 1, 2017

(d) July 1, 2018

50. Which of the following constitutional amendment acts is related to the Goods and Services Tax (GST)? (a) One Hundred and First Amendment of the Constitution of India (b) One Hundred and Second Amendment of the Constitution of India (c) One Hundred and Third Amendment of the Constitution of India (d) One Hundred and Fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India 51. Which of the following items does/do not fall under the purview of GST? (a) Petroleum products (b) Alcoholic drinks (c) Electricity

(d) All of the above Passage – 5

The longest United Nations climate talks on record have finally ended in [1] with a compromise deal. Exhausted delegates reached agreement on the key question of increasing the global response to curbing carbon. All countries will need to put new climate pledges on the table by the time of the next major conference in Glasgow next year. Divisions over other questions - including carbon markets - were delayed until the next gathering. After two extra days and nights of negotiations, delegates finally agreed a deal that will see new, improved carbon cutting plans on the table by the time of the Glasgow conference next year. All parties will need to address the gap between what the science says is necessary to avoid dangerous climate change, and the current state of play which would see the world go past this threshold in the 2030s. Supported by the European Union and small island states, the push for higher ambition was opposed by a range of countries including the US, Brazil, India and China. However a compromise was agreed with the richer nations having to show that they have kept their promises on climate change in the years before 2020. 52. Which of the following cities has been replaced with '[1]' in the passage above? (a) Paris

(b) Madrid

(c) New York

(d) Kyoto

53. Which of the following countries has withdrawn from the Paris climate deal in 2017? (a) China

(b) India

(c) USA

(d) Russia

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MOCK TEST – 1

54. The Paris Agreement came into force with effect from: (a) 4 November 2015 (b) 4 November 2016 (c) 4 November 2017 (d) 4 November 2018 55. Which of the following countries is the largest emitter of carbon dioxide? (a) India (b) China (c) Russia (d) USA Passage – 6 On September 28, 2018 the Supreme Court opened the Sabarimala temple to women of all ages. The decision turned [1] into war zone. Organisations opposed to the judgement started blocking women of menstrual age from entering temple. The then Chief Justice of India (CJI) Dipak Misra had stated that the selective ban on women was not an "essential part" of Hinduism, and instead a form of "religious patriarchy". Massive protests were witnessed at Nilakkal and Pamba base camps on 17 October 2018, when the temple was opened for the first time after the Supreme Court verdict. Protesters reportedly assaulted women activists, journalists, and other women who were trying to enter the temple. People stole camera equipment of women journalists, and even damaged a vehicle. The police were also attacked in the protest. The debate about the constitutional validity of practices entailing into restriction of entry of women generally in the place of worship is not limited to this case, but also arises in respect of entry of Muslim women in a durgah/ mosque as also in relation to Parsi women married to a non-Parsi into the holy fireplace of a/an [2]" observed the bench in a 3:2 majority decision. 56. The Sabarimala temple is dedicated to whom among the following deities? (a) Shiva (b) Ayyappan (c) Padmanabhaswamy (d) Venkateswara Swami 57. Since 1951, Tranvancore Devaswom Board has restricted the entry of women of age between ______ from entering the Sabarimala temple. (a) 18 years and 45 years (b) 20 years and 50 years (c) 10 years and 50 years (d) 15 years and 40 years 58. The Sabarimala temple is located inside which of the following tiger reserves? (a) Periyar (b) Pench (c) Parambikulam (d) Nagarahole 59. Which of the following would fill [2] appropriately? (a) Synagogue (b) Monastery (c) Agiyari (d) Mosque

Passage – 7 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released its fifth bimonthly monetary policy statement for 2019-20 in which the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), led by [1], decided to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 5.15%. In 2019, the RBI has cut repo rate by 135 basis points so far to a nine-year low of 5.15%. Analysts were expecting another 25 basis points cut. The RBI said it is against any kind of private digital currency as currency is a soveriegn function. The apex bank, has however started initial discussions to launch its own digital currency. RBI said that it is not worried about fiscal deficit, but wants greater clarity on counter-cyclical fiscal measures. Stock markets erased all the gains and fell led by drop in banking stocks after Reserve Bank of India unexpectedly maintained its key rates. The Reserve Bank of India will not allow any NBFC to collapse, it said adding that it know which NBFCs are vulnerable and are being monitored. 60. How many members are there in the Monetary Policy Committee? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 61. The Monetary Policy Committee of India is responsible for (a) Fixing the fiscal policy of India (b) Fixing the economic growth rate of India (c) Fixing the benchmark interest rate in India (d) Resolving the complaints related to nonperforming assets in the Banks 62. Who is the ex officio chairperson of the Monetary Policy Committee of India whose name has been redacted with [1] in the above passage? (a) Finance Minister (b) Prime Minister (c) RBI Governor (d) Finance Secretory 63. The current mandate of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is to maintain 4% annual inflation until 31 March 2021 with an upper tolerance of _______ and a lower tolerance of __________. (a) 8% and 3% (b) 7% and 3% (c) 6% and 2% (d) 6.5% and 3.5% Passage – 8 In a historic move, Parliament gave its assent to the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019 as it passed the Rajya Sabha test even as violent public protests broke out in the north-eastern states of Assam and Tripura over opposition to the bill. During voting in the Rajya Sabha, 125 votes went in favour of the bill and 105 against it. Despite NDA being in a minority in the Upper House, the bill received support from friendly parties including the AIADMK, which has

MOCK TEST – 1

11 MPs in the Rajya Sabha, while the Shiv Sena walked out before voting commenced. The controversial legislation, which has been fiercely resisted by opposition parties for being unconstitutional and discriminatory, will now need President Ram Nath Kovind’s assent for it to become law. The bill was already approved by the Lok Sabha where the ruling National Democratic Alliance (NDA) government is in a majority. The Citizenship Amendment Bill, 2019 proposes to accord citizenship to illegal _____________ migrants from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan. On 12 December 2019, President Ram Nath Kovind gave his assent to the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2019, turning it into an Citizenship Amendment, 2019 Act. 64. Which of the following religious communities was excluded from providing citizenship in the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019? (a) Buddhist (b) Jain (c) Parsi (d) Muslim 65. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 provides citizenship to any person, who entered into India on or before _____________. (a) 31 December, 2010 (b) 31 December, 2012 (c) 31 December, 2014 (d) 31 December, 2015 66. Under Citizenship Act, 1955, which of the following is not a ground to grant Indian Citizenship? (a) Registration (b) Naturalisation (c) Descent (d) Religion 67. In the northeastern states of India, the reasons behind the widespread protest against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 is/are (a) Ordinary refugees will benefit equally from the reservations in the northeastern states (b) Ordinary refugees will undermine the ethnic communities living in these regions (c) Ordinary refugees will exploit more natural resources and spoil the environment (d) All of the above

LEGAL APTITUDE Direction for question 68 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied. Passage – 1 The adage, "sunlight is the best disinfectant" is often used to delineate the need for disclosure of matters related to public interest through the Right to Information

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mechanism. The declaration of assets by ministers and legislators, besides electoral candidates, has gone a long way in shedding light on public authorities and provided the citizenry more relevant information about their representatives. The Representation of People Act passed way back in 1951 also mandates it for prospective legislators. Yet, judges of the Supreme Court had hitherto refused to share information on their personal assets, citing the express lack of public interest. The welcome ruling by a five-member Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court that the office of the Chief Justice of India is a "public authority" under the RTI Act, as much as the apex court itself, now enables the disclosure of information such as the judges' personal assets. The judgment's majority opinion, emphasised the need for transparency and accountability and that "disclosure is a facet of public interest". The Bench unanimously argued that the right to know under the RTI Act was not absolute and this had to be balanced with the right of privacy of judges. But the key takeaway from the judgment is that disclosure of details of serving judges' personal assets was not a violation of their right to privacy. The main opinion also argued that information related to issues such as judicial appointments will also be subject to the test of public interest and procedures mandated in the RTI Act that specify that views of third parties (in this case, judges) must be sought. The RTI Act is a strong weapon that enhances accountability, citizen activism and, consequently, participative democracy, even if its implementation has come under strain in recent years due mainly to the Central government's apathy and disregard for the nuts and bolts of the Act. Yet, despite this, the Supreme Court judgment paves the way for greater transparency and could now impinge upon issues such as disclosure, under the RTI Act, by other institutions such as registered political parties. This is vital as political party financing is a murky area today, marked by opacity and exacerbated by the issue of electoral bonds, precluding citizens from being fully informed on sources of party incomes. 68. Why does the author feel that the disclosure of information relating to personal assets of public authorities is beneficial in the larger interest? (a) Because it puts restrictions on judges to amass assets disproportionate to their known sources of income. (b) Because political leaders will fear from judges. (c) Because it brings transparency in public institutions and reduces corruption. (d) Because RTI act is a citizen's charter and no application relating to public authorities can be denied.

10 MOCK TEST – 1

69. On what grounds, until the judgement, according to the author, judges refused to disclose information regarding their personal assets? (a) They are not elected representatives and not answerable to the public. (b) Their personal assets do not concern any public interest. (c) The moment a person becomes a member of higher judiciary, their personal assets get constitutional sanctity. (d) Judges have to be trusted for the judicial system to have efficacy. 70. Mr. Ghyanshyam was contesting independently from Delhi South Lok Sabha seat. He refuses to share details about his personal assets. Decide. (a) Mr. Ghyanshyam is bound to disclose his personal assets as he is a public authority under RTI. (b) Mr. Ghyanshyam is bound to disclose his personal assets as per the Representation of People Act, 1951. (c) Mr. Ghyanshyam is bound to disclose his personal assets only after he wins. (d) Lok Sabha elections are governed by Election Commission of India Act and not RTI. 71. Sukriti files a RTI application to know about the places a Supreme Court judge visited, during his family vacations in Europe. Based on the passage, decide. (a) Sukriti's application will be accepted as Supreme Court judges come under RTI. (b) Sukriti's application will be accepted as foreign trips are made from unlawful income. (c) Sukriti's application will be rejected as Supreme Court judges do not come within RTI. (d) Sukriti's application will be rejected as there is no public interest involved and violates right to privacy of the judge. 72. "Kindian Kolaveri Di" was registered as a political party recently. After the RTI judgement, what impact would it have on this political party ? (a) "Kindian Kolaveri Di" will have to mandatorily disclose its funding except through electoral bonds. (b) "Kindian Kolaveri Di" will have to mandatorily disclose its funding including through electoral bonds. (c) "Kindian Kolaveri Di" may be mandated to disclose its funding. (d) "Kindian Kolaveri Di" cannot be forced to disclose its funding through electoral bonds.

Passage – 2 The draft Indian Forest (Amendment) Bill of 2019, circulated in March this year, aims at re-establishing state power over forests at the cost of rights granted to the forest dwelling tribals and other forest dwellers under the Forest Rights Act of 2006 (FRA). It seeks to empower the very forest bureaucracy whose highhandedness provoked the latest round of Left-wing insurgency originating from Chhattisgarh's Bastar region and undermine the FRA brought to soothe tribals' ire and undo "historic injustices" in denying them theirs traditional rights. Through this the central government seeks to arm itself with far greater power over forest resources than the colonial masters who brought in the Indian Forest Act of 1927 (IFA). This draft Bill seeks to replace the IF(a) The draft bill brings in forest bureaucracy to manage "village forests" through joint forest management committee (JFMC). Though the concept of village forest exists in the original IFA, the FRA overrides all existing laws in recognising and vesting rights over forest land and resources with forest dwelling communities, including in conservation and management of forests through their Gram Sabha, thus making JFMC defunct or redundant. It says that even when a village forest belongs to tribal community, use of timber and other forest produce, pasture rights and protections and management of these forests would be "in consultation with the forest department" (clause 22). Further, it empowers forest bureaucracy to record forest rights and gives it extraordinary power to take away ("commute") individual and community rights for declaring and usurping "reserve forest" by paying compensation. Clause 26 provides that in case of fire in a reserved forest or theft of forest produce or grazing by cattle, all rights of pasture or to forestproduce would be suspended. Taken together, these provisions give a veto to forest bureaucracy and tantamount to extinction of forest rights. The draft bill introduces a new provision (clause 66) to allow forest bureaucracy to use fire arms and enter and search any premises on mere suspicion, just by informing Gram Sabha, to check forest offences like unauthorized harm to flora or fauna. 73. Which is the primary reason for the author being disgruntled with the proposed Indian Forest (Amendment) Bill, 2019? (a) The autonomy erstwhile with the forest dwellers is being proposed to be shifted to the State. (b) The forest dwellers will lose their livelihood. (c) The forest bureaucracy will use its unbridled powers to sell the forest produce illegally thereby earning black money. (d) The State ditched the forest dwellers by taking powers of the Gram Sabha and vesting it with the District Judge.

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74. Why, according to the author, will the JFMC become defunct if the proposed bill is enacted? (a) Forest dwellers' duty to ensure proper management of forest is overridden. (b) The Forest bureaucracy has better knowledge base overriding any traditional systems of the local inhabitants. (c) The Gram Sabha will have representation from forest authority. (d) Forest dwellers' right to participate in the management of forest has been dissolved. 75. A bullet train corridor is proposed between Mumbai and Ahmadabad. Certain reserve forest area has to be cleared for this. Suppose the above draft bill is passed and becomes a statue. What course of action will be available to the State ? (a) The State cannot take away the reserve forest land as it is protected under cultural and educational rights of minorities. (b) The State can take away the reserve forest land only on consent by 51% of the local inhabitants. (c) The State can take away the reserve forest land after paying appropriate compensation to the local inhabitants. (d) The State can take away the reserve forest after prior permission from Gram Sabha. 76. Meghmala is a tribal girl in Jharkhand. She goes to the forest, cuts timber and uses it as fuelwood for cooking food. Suppose the Indian Forest (Amendment) Bill becomes a law, what impact would it have on Meghmala? (a) It would have no impact on Meghmala. She could still go and collect timber. (b) Meghmala will have to take permission of forest department. (c) Meghmala can collect timber so long as she is using it for non-commercial purposes. (d) Gram Sabha will adjudicate upon Meghmala's case. 77. The forest department receives information regarding possible poaching of a tiger in the reserve forest area in West Bengal. Suppose the above draft bill becomes a statute, what course of action is available to the forest department? (a) The forest department will have to take prior permission of forest dwellers. (b) The forest department will have to take prior permission of the Gram Sabha. (c) The forest department will have to take prior permission of both forest dwellers and the respective Gram Sabha. (d) The forest department will have to intimate the Gram Sabha.

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Passage – 3 The Supreme Court in October, 2019 recalled the two directions passed last year by its two-judge bench, which diluted the provisions of arrest under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. The apex court's three-judge bench restored the earlier position of the law by recalling two directions in the 20 March, 2018 verdict, which provided no absolute bar on grant of anticipatory bail and prior inquiry before effecting arrest of public servant and private individual under the Act. Criticising the verdict which provided for prior sanction from the appointing authority before the arrest of a public servant under the SC/ST Act, the bench said that it is contrary to legislative intent and not at all statutorily envisaged. The top court also expressed displeasure with another direction which provided for seeking approval of Senior Superintendent of Police (SSP) prior to the arrest of an private individual under the Act. It dealt with false cases lodged under the SC/ST Act, which was the basis of March 2018 verdict, and said: "There is no presumption that the members of the SCs/ STs may misuse the provisions of law as a class and it is not resorted to by the members of the upper Castes or the members of the elite class". "For lodging a false report, it cannot be said that the caste of a person is the cause. It is due to the human failing and not due to the caste factor. Caste is not attributable to such an act," the bench said, adding that it cannot be the case that a report by upper caste has to be registered immediately and arrest can be made forthwith, whereas, in case of an offence under the SC/ST Act, it would be a conditioned one. It said that members of SC/ST cannot be put to a disadvantageous position in comparison to upper caste people and "what legislature cannot do legitimately, cannot be done by the interpretative process by the courts". "We conclude with a pious hope that a day would come, as expected by the framers of the Constitution, when we do not require any such legislation like Act of 1989, and there is no need to provide for any reservation to SCs/STs/OBCs, and only one class of human exist equal in all respects and no caste system or class of SCs/ STs or OBCs exist, all citizens are emancipated and become equal as per Constitutional goal," it said. 78. What all directions regarding arrest under the SC/ ST Atrocity Act were provided by the two judge bench of Supreme Court in its judgement in March, 2018? (a) Before the arrest of an individual or public servant prior permission of SSP or the appointing public authority, as the case may be, is to be obtained. (b) Before registering an FIR against an individual or public servant prior written permission of SSP or the appointing public authority, as the case may be, is to be obtained.