CAREER LAUNCHER INFRASTRUCTURE (P) LTD. Edition : 2020 A dministrative and Production Offices

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Contents  SYLLABUS  EXAM PATTERN P RACTICE SETS  Practice Set – 1

1 – 19

 Practice Set – 2

20 – 40

 Practice Set – 3

41 – 59

 Practice Set – 4

60 – 78

 Practice Set – 5

79 – 97

 Practice Set – 6

98 – 117

 Practice Set – 7

118 – 136

 Practice Set – 8

137 – 155

 Practice Set – 9

156 – 174

 Practice Set – 10

175 – 193

 Practice Set – 11

194 – 211

 Practice Set – 12

212 – 230

 Practice Set – 13

231 – 246

 Practice Set – 14

247 – 260

 Practice Set – 15

261 – 280

 Practice Set – 16

281 – 294

 Practice Set – 17

295 – 310

 Practice Set – 18

311 – 330

 Practice Set – 19

331 – 344

 Practice Set – 20

345 – 362

SOLVED PAPERS  NEET 2013

1 – 32

 CBSE-AIPMT 2014

1 – 22

 CBSE-AIPMT 2015 (Re-Exam)

1 – 24

 NEET 2016 (Phase I)

1 – 22

 NEET 2016 (Phase II)

1 – 22

 NEET 2017

1 – 20

 NEET 2018

1 – 23

 NEET 2019

1 – 24

 NEET 2020

1 – 23

N EET Syllabus P H YSI C S S.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21

Class XI Physical world and measurement Notion of Potential Energy Nature of Physical Laws Kinematics Speed, Velocity Work Energy and Power Laws of Motion Static & Kinetic Friction Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Body Gravitation Kepler’s law of Planetary Motion The Universal Law of Gravitation, Thermodynamics Behaviour of Perfect Gas and Kinetic Theory Properties of Bulk Matter Bulk Modulous Critical Velocity Heat Work & Internal Energy Oscillations and Waves

S.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Class XI Basic Concepts of Chemistry Structure of Atom Laws of Chemical Combination Atomic Number Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Isotopes & Isobars Ionic Bond States of Matter: Gases and Liquids

9 10 11 12

Covalent Bond Thermodynamics Electronagitivity Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Equilibrium Hydrogen Equilibrium in Physical & Chemical Process Redox Reactions Organic Chemistry-Some Basic Principles and Techniques Physical & Chemical Properties of Water Hydrocarbons s-Block Element (Alkali and Alkaline earth metals) Environmental Chemistry Some p-Block Elements

Class XII Electrostatics Electric Charges & their Coservation Electric Diplole Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism Carbon Resistors Kirchhoff’s Laws & Simple Applications Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents AC Generator & Transformer Concept of Megnatic Field Permanent Magnets Current Electricity Electromagnetic Waves Electromagnetic Spectrum Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation Optics Optical Instruments Wave Optics Atoms and Nuclei Electronic Devices Conductors

CHEMISTRY

13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

Class XII Solid State Band Theory of Metals Solutions Elevation of Boiling Point Electro Chemistry Chemical Kinetics Surface Chemistry General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Electrochemistry p-Block Elements d and f Block Elements Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols Physical & Chemical Properties of Primary Alcohol Phenols and Ethers Coordination Compounds Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Amines, Cynaides & Isocynaides Polymers Biomolecules Chemistry in Everyday Life Cleansing Agents – Soaps & Detergents.

B I OL O G Y S. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

Class XI Three Domains of Life Diversity in Living World Cell Structure and Function Cell Theory Plant Cell & Animal Cell Tissues Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants Morphology & Modifications Transport in Plants Plant Physiology Photosynthesis Human physiology

Class XII Reproduction Reproduction in Organisms Genetics and Evolution Biology and Human Welfare Biology and Human Welfare Heredity & Variations Principle & Process of Biotechnology Biotechnology and Its Applications Ecology and Environment Organism & Environment Biodiversity and its Conversation

Exam Pattern S.No.

Subjects

No. of Questions

Maximum Marks

1.

Physics

45

180

2.

Chemistry

45

180

3.

Biology

90

360

180

720

Total

Time

3 hours

PRACTICE SET - 1 PHYSICS 1. An iron block of sides 5cm×8cm×15cm has to be pushed along the floor. The force required will be minimum when the surface in contact with ground is: (a) force is the same for all surfaces (c) 5cm × 15cm surface (d) 8cm× 15cm surface 2. A bullet is fired and get embedded in a block kept on a table. If table is frictionless, then: (a) Potential energy gets conserved. (b) Kinetic energy gets conserved (c) Momentum gets conserved. (d) both (b) and (c) 3. A bomber plane is moving horizontally with a speed of 500m/s and bomb released from it, strikes the ground in 10 seconds. Angle at which it strikes the ground is (g = 10m/s2): 1 1 (b) tan–1 5 5 –1 –1 (c) tan 5 (d) tan 1  4. A force F = 3iˆ + cjˆ + 2kˆ acting on a particle cause  a displacement S = −4iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ in its own

(a) sin–1

direction. If the work done is 6J, then the value of c will be: (a) 12

(b) 6

(c) 1

(d) 0

(a) 5.2 × 103N

(b) 4.2 × 103N

(c) 3.2 × 103N

(d) 2.2 × 103N

6. Waterfalls from a height 500m. What is raise in temprature of water at the bottom. If the whole energy remain water. (Specific heat of water 4200 J/kg°C). (a) 0.19°C

(b) 0.24°C

(c) 0.40°C

(d) 1.16°C

7. 7μf capacitor is charged by a 50V battery. How much electrostatic energy is stored by it? (c) 8.75 × 10 J

C 2

(b)

C 2

(a) 4R

(b) 2R

(c) R

(d) none of these

10. A wave of frequency 100Hz travels along a string towards its fixed ends. When this wave travels back after reflection, a node is formed at a distance of 10cm from the fixed end. The speed of the wave (incident and reflected) is: (a) 40m/s

(b) 20m/s

(c) 10m/s

(d) none of these

11. A positively charged particles due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upward. This particle will: (a) move in a circular path with a uniform speed. (b) move in a circular path with a decreased speed. (c) move in a circular path with a increased speed. (d) get deflected in a verticle upward direction. 12. The peak value of A.C. voltage on a 220 volt mains will be: (a) 240 2 volt

5. The average force necessary to stop a bullet of mass 20g and 250 m/s as it penetrates wood to a distance of 12cm, is:

–3

(a)

(c) 2C (d) 2C 9. If a wire of resistance R is stretched to double its length, then the new resistance is:

(b) 8cm × 5cm surface

(a) 1.7 × 10–8J

8. Parallel plate condenser with oil between the plates (dielectric constant of oil K = 2) has a capacitance C. if the oil is removed then capacitance of the capacitor becomes:

(b) 13.6 × 10–9J –7

(d) 6.7 × 10 J

(b) 230 2 volt

(c) 220 2 volt (d) zero 13. The ratio of charge to potential of a body is called as: (a) Resistance

(b) Inductance

(c) Conductance

(d) Capacitance

14. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetising fields are 100 V/m and 0.265 A/m. The maximum energy flow will be: (a) 76.5 W/m2

(b) 46.7 W/m2

2

(d) 26.5 W/m2

(c) 36.5 W/m

15. Two identical galvanometers are converted into ammeter and milliammeter shunts, which has more resistance due to current passing through the milliammeter is: (a) zero

(b) less

(c) more

(d) equal

2

PRACTICE SET 1

16. Radius of the circular path of and electron subjected to a perpendicular magnetic field is: me mV (b) B Be mE (c) (d) none of these B 17. Electron beam is allowed to pass normally through mutually perpendicular magnetic electric fields. If magnetic field induction and electric field strength are 0.0004 Wb/m 2 and 3000 V/m respectively and beam suffers no deflection. Then the velocity of electron will be:

(a)

(a) 1.2 × 106 m/s

(b) 7.5 × 1012 m/s

(c) 7.5 × 106 m/s

(d) none of these

18. If the vertical components of earth’s magnetic field be 6×10–5 Wb/m2 then what will be the induced potential difference produced between the rails of metre gauge when a train is running on them with speed of 36 km/hr?

21. Two racing car of masses m1 and m2 are moving in a circle of radius r1 and r2 respectively their speeds are such that each makes a complete circle in the same time t the ratio of the angular speed of the first to the second car will be: (b) 1:1 (a) m1m2 : r1r2 (c) m1:m2 (d) r1:r2 22. The kinetic energy of one gramme molecule of a gas, at normal temperature and pressure will be (R = 8.31 J/mole K): (b) 2.7 × 102J (a) 3.4 × 103J (d) none of these (c) 1.2 × 102J 23. Two rods having thermal conductivity in the ratio of 5:3 having same length and equal cross-sectional area are join by face to face. If the temperature of the free end of the first rod is 100°C and the temperature of free end of the second rod is 20°C. Then temperature of junction will be: (a) 85°C (b) 90°C (c) 50°C (d) 70°C 24. The wavelength of a light emitting from second orbit to the first orbit in a hydrogen atom will be: (b) 1.215 × 10–3m (a) 1.215 × 10–7m (d) none of these (c) 1.215 × 10–5m 25. If length of a closed organ pipe is 1m and velocity of sound is 330 m/s. Then, the frequency of second note will be: (a) 2 ×

4 Hz 330

(b) 2 ×

330 Hz 4

330 330 Hz (d) 4 × Hz 4 4 26. The coefficient of volumetric expansion of mercury is 1.8 × 10–5 °C. The thermometer bulb has a velocity of 10–6m 3 and cross-section of stern 0.002cm 2. Assuming that bulb is filled with mercury at 0°C, the length of mercury column at 100°C will be:

(c) 3 ×

(a) 9 × 104 volt

(b) 6 × 10–4 volt

(c) 3 × 10–4 volt

(d) 2 × 104 volt

19. The equivalent resistance Rpq between the points P and Q is: R 2Ω

4Ω 3Ω

P 6Ω

Q 12Ω

S

(a) 8Ω

(b) 1.5Ω

(c) 4.5Ω

(d) 6Ω

20. Dimensions of hubble constant are: (a) [MLT–1]

(b) [MLT4]

(c) [M°L°T–2]

(d) [T–1]

(a) 18mm

(b) 9mm

(c) 18cm

(d) 9cm

27. A stone is tied to one end of a string of 40cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 10 revolutions in 20 second. The magnitude of the acceleration is: (a) 990cm/s2

(b) 394cm/s2

(c) 250cm/s2

(d) none of these

28. Rectification is the process of : (a) Low DC into high DC (b) Low AC into high AC (c) AC into DC (d) DC into AC

PRACTICE SET 1

29. A permanent magnet attracts: (a) only paramagnetic substance (b) all substance (c) only ferromagnetic substance (d) all of these 30. The resistance of a galvanometer is 6Ω and it can measure a maximum current of 2amp, then required shunt resistance to convert it into an ammeter reads upto 6 amp, will be: (a) 5Ω (b) 4Ω (c) 3Ω (d) 2Ω 31. As the intensity of incident light increases: (a) Kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron (b) Kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron increases (c) Photoelectric current decreases (d) Photoelectric current increases 32. A semiconductors is damaged by a strong current, due to: (a) lack of free electrons (b) decrease in electrons (c) excess of electrons (d) either (a) and (b) 33. A proton and α-particle are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of wavelength of the proton to that of an α-particle is: (a) 2 2 : 1

(b) 1 : 2 2

(c) 2 : 1 (d) none of these 34. A chain reaction in a fission of uranium is possible becuase: (a) fragments in the fission are radioactive (b) more than one neutron is given out (c) small amount of energy is released (d) large amount of energy is released 35. The x-ray cannot be diffracted by means of an extraordinary grating because of: (a) large wavelength (b) high speed (c) short wavelength (d) low speed 36. In a coil having emf of 8 volt is induced for 0.05 the value of current changes from 2amp to 4amp. What will be the value of coefficient of self induction of the coil? (a) 0.8 henry (b) 0.4 henry (c) 0.2 henry (d) none of these 37. The amplification factor of a triode valve depends upon: (a) relative position of cathode grid and plate (b) plate potential and grid potential (c) temperature of the anode (d) temperature of the cathode

3

38. Dark lines in the solar spectrum are due to: (a) absorption of certain wavelengths, producing dark lines in the solar system (b) absence of certain elements in the sun. (c) black body radiations from the sun (d) scattering of light 39. The astronomical microscope consists of objective and eyepiece. The focal length of the objective is: (a) five times shorter than of eyepiece (b) shorter than that of eyepiece (c) greater than that of eyepiece (d) equal to that of eyepiece 40. Objective with large aperture are used in telescope for: (a) reducing less aberration (b) ease of manufacture (c) greater resolution (d) greater magnification 41. A jet plane emits sound with a frequency 990 cycles/sound and carries on board a source of light emitting radiation of wavelength 4500Å. If the jet plane approaches the airport with the velocity 1080 km/hour, then the frequency of sound heared by the observer on airport will be: (a) 11890 cycles/sec. (b) 10890 cycles/sec. (c) 12890 cycles/sec. (d) none of these 42. When a slow neutron captured by a U235 nucleus a fission results which release 200 MeV energy. Then the number of fission per second of nclei under going fission is: (b) 5 × 1012 (a) 5 × 1010 (c) 5 × 104 (d) 5 × 1016 5 43. If one mole of monoatomic gas γ = is mixed 3 7 with one mole of diatomic gas γ = . The value of 5 γ for the mixtures is: (a) 2.5 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.8 (d) none of these 44. What is the ratio of specific charge e/m of an α-particles and that of electron (Proton is 1840 times heavier than an electron)? 1 1 (b) (a) 4680 3680 1 (c) (d) none of these 5680 45. A prism of 6° is made of material of refractive 5 index . The deviation caused by it is: 3 (a) 2° (b) 8° (c) 4° (d) none of these

4

PRACTICE SET 1

CHEMISTRY

7. The correct increasing bond angles order is:

1. Two flasks X and Y have capacity 1L and 2L respectively and each of them contains 1 mole of a gas. The temperatures of the flasks are so adjusted that average speed of molecules in X is twice as those in Y. The pressure in flasks X would be (a) same as that in Y (b) half of that in Y (c) twice of that in Y (d) Eight times of that in Y 2. Which one of the following set of quantum numbers is not possible for 4p electron? (a) n = 4, l = 1, m = –1, ms = +

1 2

(b) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, ms = +

1 2

(c) n = 4, l = 1, m = 2, ms = +

1 2

1 2 3. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g? (d) n = 4, l = 1, m = –1, ms = −

[Atomic masses : Na = 23, Cl = 35.5] (a) 5.14 × 1021

(b) 1.28 × 1021

(c) 1.71 × 1021

(d) 2.57 × 1021

4. Which of the following molecule exhibit maximum enol content? (b) O (a) O

O

O

(c)

(a) BF3 < NF3 < PF3 < ClF3 (b) ClF3 < PF3 < NF3 < BF3 (c) BF3 ≈ NF3 < PF3 < ClF3 (d) BF3 < NF3 < PF3 < ClF3 O

8.

BF3

+

(a)

O

CH2

(c)

Product (b)

CH3 OH

(d) None of the above OH

9. The increasing thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 follows the sequence (a) H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te (b) H2Te, H2Se, H2S, H2O (c) H2S, H2O, H2Se, H2Te (d) H2Se, H2S, H2O, H2Te 10. Dimethyl glyoxime in a suitable solvent was refluxed for 10 min with pure pieces of nickel sheet, it will result in (a) red preciptate

(b) blue precipitate

(c) yellow precipitate

(d) no precipitate

11. The hybrid state of Co in high spin K3CoF6 complex is (a) sp3d2

(b) sp3

(c) d2sp3

(d) sp3d

12. End product of the following reaction is ________ by mechanism ________

(d)

t.BuOK

5. Which of the following compounds give oxygen on heating? (a) K2Cr2O7, KClO3

(b) (NH4)2Cr2O7, KClO3

(c) Pb(NO3)2, AgNO3

(d) Both (a) and (c)

6. Beckmann transformation of

OTs

(a)

(c)

(b)

E2

SN1

(d)

E1

SN2

C6H5 C=N C6H5CH2

OBu

OH

followed by hydrolysis will yield

OBu

13. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?

(a) benzoic acid and benzylamine

(a) Polythene

(b) phenylacetic acid and benzylamine

(b) Bakelite

(c) aniline and phenyl acetic acid

(c) PHBV

(d) benzoic acid and aniline

(d) PVC

PRACTICE SET 1

14. Which of the following statement is not true? (a) Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptic at low concentration. (b) Norethindrone is a pheromone. (c) Aspirin is analgesic and antipyretic (d) Sulphadiazine is a synthetic antibacterial. 15. Which one of the following compounds is used as a body deodorant? (a) Aspirin

(b) Omeprazole

(c) Bithional

(d) P-chlorometaxylenol

16. Among the following the molecule with highest dipole moment is (a) CH3Cl

(b) CH2Cl2

(c) CHCl3

(d) CCl4

17. The cyanide ion, CN– and N2 are isoelectronic. But in contrast to CN–, N2 is chemically inert, because of (a) low bond energy (b) absence of bond polarity (c) unsymmetrical electron distribution (d) presence of more number of electrons in bonding orbitals 18. Solute A is a ternary electrolyte and solute B is a non-eletrolyte. If 0.1 M solution of solute B produces an osmotic pressure of 2P, then 0.05 M solution of A at the same temperature will produce an osmotic pressure equal to (a) 1.5 P

(b) 2P

(c) 3P

(d) P

19. Which of the following relationships is correct? (a) K =

TΔSº −ΔHº RT

(c) ln K =

TΔSº −ΔHº RT

ΔHº − TΔSº RT ΔHº − TΔSº (d) ln K = RT (b) K =

  20. If KP for a reaction A ( g ) + 2B(g )   3C(g ) + D( g) is 0.05 atm at 1000K. Its KC in terms of R will be (a) 20000 R (b) 0.02 R 5 × 10−5 (d) (c) 5 × 10 R R 21. When NaCl is added to the reaction mixture of an oil and caustic soda, the soap is thrown out because –5

(a) NaCl is an ionic compound (b) soap is insoluble in the presence of chloride ions (c) the solubility product of NaCl decreases in the presence of soap. (d) the solubility of the soap is exceeded due to the increased concentration of Na+ ions.

5

22. Thermal decomposition method is used to purify (a) Ni

(b) Cr

(c) Sn

(d) Pb

23. Which of the following does not contain P-O-P bond? (a) Isohypophosphoric acid (b) Diphosphorus acid (c) Diphosphoric acid (d) Hypophosphoric acid 24. A compound formed by elements A and B has a cubic structure in which A atoms are at the corners of the cube and B atoms are at the face centres. The formula for the compound is (a) A2B3

(b) AB3

(c) A3B

(d) A3B2

25. The vapour pressure of pure liquid solvent A is 0.80 atm. When a non-volatile substance B is added to the solvent, its vapour pressure drops to 0.60 atm. What is the mole fraction of component B is the solution? (a) 0.75

(b) 0.25

(c) 0.40

(d) 0.60

26. Calculate the standard free energy change for the reaction. 2Ag + 2H + ⎯⎯ → H 2 + 2Ag + Eº for Ag + + e − ⎯⎯ → Ag is 0.80V

(a) +154.4 KJ

(b) +308.8 KJ

(c) –154.4 KJ

(d) –308.8 KJ

27. In the cell Zn|Zn2+(C1)  Cu2+(C2)|Cu Ecell – Eºcell = 0.0591V. The ratio C1/C2 at 298K will be (a) 2

(b) 100 –2

(c) 10

(d) 1

28. Type of isomerism shown by [Cr(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 is (a) optical

(b) ionisation

(c) geometrical 3+

3+

(d) linkage

3+

29. Ce , La , Pm and Yb3+ have ionic radii in the increasing order as (a) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+ (b) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+ (c) La3+ = Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+ (d) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ 30. Alum is widely used to purify water since (a) it forms complex with clay particles (b) it coagulates the mud particles (c) it exchanges Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions present in hard water. (d) its sulphate ion is water purifier

6

PRACTICE SET 1

31. In the given reaction, X is Pyridine CH3 CHO + CH2 ( COOH )2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ →X heat

38. For 2s orbital the nodal surface exists at a distance of (a) a0 from the nucleus

(a) CH3COOH

(b) 1.5 a0 from the nucleus

(b) C2H5COOH

(c) 2a0 from the nucleus

(c) CH3CH = CH⋅COOH

(d) none of these is correct

(d) HOOC⋅CH = CH⋅COOH 32. If SO2 content in the atmosphere is 0.12 ppm by volume, pH of rain water (assume 100% ionisation of acid rain as monobasic acid) is

39. Which of the following is diamagnetic? (a) Superoxide ion (b) Carbon molecule

(a) 5.7

(b) 5.6

(c) Oxygen molecule

(c) 5.4

(d) 2.0

(d) Unipositive ion of nitrogen molecule

33. A deliquescent white crystalline hydroxide X reacts with a nitrate Y to form another hydroxide which decomposes to give a insoluble brown layer of its oxide. X is a powerful cautery and breaks down the proteins of skin flesh to a pasty mass. X and Y are (a) NaOH, AgNO3

(b) NaOH, Zn(NO3)2

(c) NaOH, Al(NO3)3

(d) Ca(OH)2, HgNO3

34. Mark out the wrong statement about vander waal’s constant ‘a’ (a) ‘a’ reflects magnitude of intermolecular forces. (b) Lower the value of ‘a’ greater the attractive forces. (c) Higher the value of ‘a’ higher the deviation from ideal gas.

40. What is the entropy change (in JK–1 mol–1) when one mole of ice is converted into water at 0ºC? (The enthalpy change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is 6.0 KJ mol–1 at 0ºC) (a) 20.13

(b) 2.013

(c) 2.198

(d) 21.98

41. To make a solution of pH = 12, the amount of NaOH dissolved in one litre of the solution should be (a) 0.1 g

(b) 0.2 g

(c) 0.4 g

(d) 1.2 g

42. Which one of the following radioisotopes is used in the treatment of blood cancer? (a) P32

(b) Co60

(c) I131

(d) Na24

43. Collodion is a collodial solution of

(d) Its unit is atm L2 mol–2. 35. Carbon monoxide acts as a Lewis base because it has

(a) Sucrose in water (b) Cellulose in water

(a) a double bond between C and O atoms.

(c) Cellulose nitrate in water

(b) a triple bond between C and O atoms.

(d) Cellulose nitrate in ethanol

(c) a lone pair of electrons on the C atom (d) two lone pairs of electrons on the O atom.

(a) B3N3H6

36. Conside the following redox reaction

(b) B3N3

VO23− + MnO 4− ⎯⎯ → Mn 2+ + VO34−

1 mole of VO32− is oxidised by x mole of MnO4− . Thus, x is (a) 0.2 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.8

44. Which of the following is called inorganic graphite?

(c) SiC (d) P4S3 45. The correct IUPAC name of the spiro compound

(d) 1.0

37. The decomposition of N2O into N2 and O in the presence of gaseous argon follows second order kinetics with K = (5.0 × 1011 L mol–1S–1)e–29000K/T Activation energy of the reaction is –1

(a) 121 KJ mol

–1

(c) 201 KJ mol

is O

(a) 1-Oxaspiro [4.3] octane (b) 5-oxospiro [3.4] octane

–1

(c) 5-Oxaspiro [3.4] octane

–1

(d) 1-oxospiro [4.3] octane

(b) 241 KJ mol (d) 280 KJ mol

PRACTICE SET 1

BIOLOGY 1. Select the defining feature of living organism from the given below options. (a) Growth, Conciousness, metabolism. (b) Cellular organization, growth, reproduction (c) Conciousness, reproduction (d) Metabolism, cellular organization 2. Members of kingdom protista are primarily (a) Chemosynthetic (b) Terrestrial (c) Aquatic, fresh water or sea water (d) Photo organo-heterotrophic 3. Agaricus, claviceps, penicillium (a) produce exogenous meiospore (b) develop fruiting body in sexual life cycle (c) have aseptate mycelium (d) produce predominant dikaryophase in their life cycle. 4. TMV and T2 bacteriophage (a) are without tail fibres. (b) have SS RNA and DS DNA respectively (c) have capsid around SS DNA (d) more than one are correct 5. Pyrenoids as food storage body are found in (a) Algae, Hornworts

(b) Moss, Liverworts

(c) Liverworts, Algae (d) None of these 6. Entero coelomate invertebrates belong to (a) Annelida

(b) Echinodermata

(c) Arthopoda

(d) Mollusca

7. Peripatus is connecting link between (a) Annelida and Mollusca (b) Mollusca and Arthropoda

10. Select odd one with rrespect to typical character of Nematoda. (a) Exclusive parasite (b) Pseudo coel (c) Non living cuticle

(a) form gamete by mitotic division (b) produce parasitic gametophytes (c) are without Archegonia (d) are vascular tissue bearing terrestrial plants 12. Modified aerial stem with branching of unlimited growth as photosynthetic structure is (a) Cylindrical in Opuntia and Euphorbia (b) Fleshy and cylindrical in Euphorbia (c) Flattened in Opuntia and Euphorbia (d) Cylindrical in Opuntia 13. The fruit in Mango and Coconut (a) is many seeded (b) is developed from apocarpous ovary (c) is developed from poly carpellary (d) has hard and stony endocarp 14. Gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are net enclosed by ovary and remain exposed. Here (a) Roots are generally adventitious (b) Eustelic condition is found (c) Female gametophyte is parasite over diploid endosperm (d) Dimorphic root, stem and leaves are always found. 15. Select the non-reducing sugar from below given options (a) Glucose

(b) Sucrose

(c) Maltose

(d) Galactose

16. Dog fish has ampulla of Lorenzini. These are (a) Auditory structures

(d) Coelentrata and Annelida

(b) Rheoreceptors

(a) Aedes

(b) Xenopsylla

(c) Cimex

(d) Cockroach

9. An animal has following characteristic features (i) Bilateral symmetry (ii) Closed circulatory system

(d) Syncytical epidermis

11. Ferns, Mosses, Equisetum

(c) Annelida and Arthropoda 8. Causative agent of bubonic plague is transmitted by

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(c) Balancing structures (d) Thermo receptors 17. The bat differs from birds in having (a) Wings

(b) Sweat glands

(c) Feathers

(d) Four chambered heart

18. Select wrong with respect to aerial adaptation of birds

(iii)Metameric segmentation

(a) Sternum with keel

This animal belongs to

(b) Single ovary

(a) Echinodermata

(b) Mollusca

(c) Gizzard

(c) Arthropoda

(d) Annelida

(d) Pneumatic bones