Title

: UPSC General Studies Paper II CSAT : 18 Practice Papers

Language

: English

Editor’s Name : Kannath Narayanan Prakash Copyright ©

: 2021 G.K. Publications (P) Ltd.

No part of this book may be reproduced in a retrieval system or transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronics, mechanical, photocopying, recording, scanning and or without the written permission of the Author/Publisher. Published & Marketed by : G.K. Publications (P) Ltd. Plot No. 9A, Sector-27A, Mathura Road, Faridabad, Haryana-121003 ISBN

: 978-93-90820-04-7

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CONTENTS • SYLLABUS PRACTICE PAPERS • Practice Paper-1

1 – 16

• Practice Paper-2

1 – 14

• Practice Paper-3

1 – 18

• Practice Paper-4

1 – 16

• Practice Paper-5

1 – 16

• Practice Paper-6

1 – 16

• Practice Paper-7

1 – 16

• Practice Paper-8

1 – 14

SOLVED PAPERS • 2011 CSAT Paper-II

1 – 16

• 2012 CSAT Paper-II

1 – 18

• 2013 CSAT Paper-II

1 – 18

• 2014 CSAT Paper-II

1 – 16

• 2015 CSAT Paper-II

1 – 18

• 2016 CSAT Paper-II

1 – 14

• 2017 CSAT Paper-II

1 – 15

• 2018 CSAT Paper-II

1 – 20

• 2019 CSAT Paper-II

1 – 19

• 2020 CSAT Paper-II

1 – 17

SYLLABUS The Preliminary Examination shall now comprise of two compulsory Papers of 200 marks each and of two hours duration each. PAPER I (200 marks) Duration : Two hours •

Current events of national and international importance

•

History of India and Indian National Movement

•

Indian and World Geography - Physical, Social, Economic geography of India and the World.

•

Indian Polity and Governance – Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc.

•

Economic and Social Development – Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc.

•

General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change- that do not require subject specialization

•

General Science

PAPER II (200 marks) Duration : Two hours •

Comprehension

•

Interpersonal skills including communication skills

•

Logical reasoning and analytical ability

•

Decision making and problem solving

•

General mental ability

•

Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc.(Class X level)

•

English Language Comprehension skills (Class X level)

Questions relating to English Language Comprehension skills of Class X level (last item in the Syllabus of Paper-II) will be tested through passages from English language only without providing Hindi translation there of in the question paper. The questions will be of multiple choice, objective type.

PRACTICE PAPER - 1 CSAT PAPER - II Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage – 1 Achieving self-reliance and reducing dependency on foreign countries in defense is a necessity today rather than a choice, both for strategic and economic reasons. The Government in the past has created production capabilities in defense in the form of Ordnance Factories and Public Sector Undertakings to cater to the requirements of our Armed Forces. However, there is a need to enlarge the role of Indian private sector as well to develop capabilities and capacities for the production of various defense equipment. The government has taken an initiative in the form of ‘Make in India’ to promote and encourage domestic manufacturing of various items. The requirement for domestic production of defense equipment is more than for any other sector because it will not only save precious foreign exchange but will also address the national security concerns. Government being the only consumer, ‘Make in India’ in defense sector will be driven by its procurement policy. The Government policy of promoting domestic defense industry is adequately reflected in the Defense Procurement Policy, wherein preferential treatment is given to ‘Buy (Indian)’ and ‘Buy and Make (Indian)’ categories of acquisition over ‘Buy (Global)’. In the days to come, import is going to be the rarest of the rare option and first opportunity would be given to the Indian Industry to develop and manufacture the required systems. The process of obtaining industrial license was very cumbersome and used to act as a major road block for the private defense manufacturing industry. The Government liberalized the licensing policy and now most of the components, parts, raw materials etc. have been taken out from the purview of licensing. The companies desirous of manufacturing such items no longer require industrial license and will also not be subjected to FDI ceiling of 49%. A comprehensive Security Manual indicating the security architecture to be followed by various class of industries has been put in public domain, so that companies could easily access the same and follow it accordingly. While on the one hand, Government is making necessary policy changes, the industry also needs to come up and

accept the challenge of up-gradation in terms of technology and required investments. Defense is the sector which requires huge investments and technology and is driven by innovation. The industry, therefore, has also to change its mindset and think for long term rather than temporary gains. There is a need to focus more on Research and Development and state of the art manufacturing capabilities. The Government is fully committed to create an eco-system for the domestic industry to rise and to provide a level-playing field to all sectors of industry, both public and private. 1. Which of the following assumptions is/are valid with reference to the passage? 1. The measures taken by the government in the past to increase defense production capabilities have failed. 2. Before the ‘Make in India’ initiative, the Indian private sector played no role in defense manufacturing. 3. Government procurement policy will be a larger influence on the ‘Make in India’ in defense sector as compared to other sectors. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) None of the above

2. According to the passage, which of the following is a part of ‘Make in India’ in defense sector initiative? 1. Defense equipment will be imported if all other options fail. 2. The Indian public sector will be given the first opportunity to develop and manufacture the required defense systems. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. According to the passage, the government has boosted private defense manufacturing by: 1. taking out defense manufacturing from the purview of industrial licensing. 2. outlining the security needs which private manufacturers can access and adhere to. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2

PRACTICE PAPER - 1

4. Consider the following statements, with reference to the private defense sector in India: 1. It has not invested in research and development and state of the art manufacturing capabilities. 2. It was subjected to FDI ceiling in the past. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Passage – 2

The oil price has witnessed a steady fall in price since June 2015. The oil price is partly determined by actual supply and demand, and partly by expectation. Demand is low because of weak economic activity, increased efficiency, and a growing switch away from oil to other fuels. Also, the market is more sanguine about geopolitical risk. Turmoil in Iraq and Libya, two big oil producers with nearly 4 million barrels a day combined, has not affected their output. In addition to that, USA has become the world’s largest oil producer. It now imports much less, creating a lot of spare supply. The Saudis have decided not to sacrifice their own market share. They could curb production sharply, but the main benefits would go to other oil exporting nations. In November 2015, Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries, of which Saudi is the largest oil producing member, failed to reach agreement on restricting production. Since India had been spending precious foreign exchange of the massive order of 160 billion dollars annually on oil imports, the soft crude price now prevailing in the global market would enable it to save at least 50 billion dollars in a year. Using the drastic cut in oil import bill, the country should seize the opportunity to step up generation of renewable energy as this promises to stem, if not stop the massive drain on foreign exchange reserves. It is time India planned for introducing more flexi-fuel vehicles that are run on a medley of compressed natural gas, diesel, ethanol, petrol and methanol. This is also an opportune time for upstream oil companies to aggressively step up production of oil and gas globally. 5. According to the passage, oil prices are witnessing a steady fall because: 1. Saudi Arabia has been unable to convince other OPEC members to curb supply to restore prices. 2. USA is importing less crude oil due to weak economic activity. 3. The markets are unaffected by the oil supply slump from Iraq and Libya due to internal turmoil. 4. Countries are switching over to other fuels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

6. Where should India spend the money saved from the drastic cut in its oil import bill? (a) In increasing the generation of renewable energy (b) In stopping the massive drain on foreign exchange reserves (c) In buying soft crude (d) In making its oil companies aggressively step up production of oil and gas globally. 7. Gautam and his wife start walking simultaneously, from the same point on a circular track of length 726 m, in opposite directions. If their speeds are 4.5 km/hr and 3.75 km/hr respectively, then after how much time (in minutes) will they meet for the first time? (a) 4.95 (b) 5 (c) 2.35 (d) 5.28 8. Consider the following statements: 1. Cotton production is increasing in India for the past few years. 2. Cotton garments are sold at a much higher price than garments made from synthetic material. 3. Demand for cotton has dropped in India for the past few years. 4. India has been a leading exporter of cotton for the last two decades. Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts? (a) Cotton production is increasing due to rise in global demand. (b) Cotton production is increasing due to increased exports. (c) The domestic demand has fallen due to increased export of cotton. (d) Cotton garment production brings in more revenue than synthetic material production. 9. Rimpy distributed 'y' toffees among his friends in such a way that each of his friends got an equal number of toffees. Had he given exactly 5 toffees to each of his friends, he would have been left with 12 toffees; whereas had he given 6 toffees, he would have been left with 6 toffees. How many values of y lie between 40 and 90? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 10. Consider the following statements: “We shall go either for a movie or for dinner”. Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim? (a) We go for a movie but not for dinner (b) Activities such as movies and dinner are a good way to relieve stress. (c) We go for dinner and not for a movie (d) We do not go either for a movie or for dinner

PRACTICE PAPER - 1

11. Consider the grid given below in which the numbers have a common feature. 24 33 42

15 42 60

15 X 51

3

Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it.

Which one of the following numbers can be a possible value of X?

Each of the five professors – A, B, C, D and E – belongs to a different department from among P, Q, R, S and T. Only one department is assigned to a professor. It is also known that:

(a) 15

(b) 10

(i) A belongs to either R or P.

(c) 14

(d) 18

(ii) B belongs to neither P nor T.

12. Six pots – P1, P2, P3, P4, P5 and P6 – are kept next to each other in a row, not necessarily in that order. There are two pots between P4 and P1. P3, which is kept to the immediate left of P2, is kept to the right of P5, which is kept at one of the extreme ends. Further P1 is kept to the left of P6. How many pots are there whose positions can be determined uniquely? (a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

13. What should come in the place of question marks (?, ?) in the following diagram? P R S V W G B A H ? ? V W

(a) O, P (b) P, Q (c) N, O (d) N, P 14. A salesman, accidentlly, lists the price of sugar in such a way that he incurred a loss of 20% by selling it at the list price. Later on, he decides to use a faulty weight to make a profit of 60% by selling sugar at the list price. Faulty weight is what percent less than the actual weight? (a) 40% (b) 50% (c) 44% (d) 60% 15. A man divides Rs. 900 in three parts. If it is known that half of the first part, one-third of the second and one- fourth of the third are equal, find the sum of the second and third parts. (a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 600 (c) Rs. 450 (d) Rs. 700 16. Arpit and Ankit started moving from point P towards North and East directions respectively. Arpit took 2 left, 1 right and 1 left turn, while Ankit took 1 right and 2 left turns in the given order. If each of them covered a distance of 10 m before and after taking a turn, then what is the direction of Ankit now with respect to Arpit? (a) North (b) East (c) South-East

(d) North-East

(iii) C belongs to either T or R (iv) E belongs to Q. (v) D belongs to either S or R. 17. Who belongs to department P? (a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

18. D belongs to which department? (a) R

(b) S

(c) T

(d) Either R or S

19. How many different combinations of professors and the departments assigned to them are possible? (a) One

(b) Two

(c) Four

(d) Eight

20. A milkman bought 10 L of milk and added 5 L of water to it. If the price of 1 L of the mixture is Rs. 15 and that of water is Rs. 5, then find the price of one liter of milk. (a) Rs. 10

(b) Rs. 15

(c) Rs. 20

(d) Data Insufficient

Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage – 1 The Centre’s reported decision to cap the subsidy on cooking gas makes perfect sense. Open-ended — and, in effect, unlimited — consumption subsidies on petroleum products simply misallocate resources, stymie investment and jack up the cost of funds across the board. The subsidy on domestic LPG cylinders is also overwhelmingly appropriated by the non-poor and needs to be phased out for the greater good. In parallel, what’s needed is stepped-up distribution of piped cooking gas, on which there is no upfront subsidy. Consumers currently pay less than half the market price for up to 12 subsidised LPG cylinders per year. Petroleum minister Dharmendra Pradhan has been quoted as saying that while the number of subsidised cylinders will remain the same, their deliverable price will change. Note that last year, the LPG subsidy added up to over

4

PRACTICE PAPER - 1

Rs 46,000 crore, much of it questionable. Worse, a 2012 survey revealed that 25 per cent of domestic LPG in Karnataka were ‘ghost’ connections. And in 2013, it was found that 20 per cent of its 1.6 crore registered LPG consumers in Andhra Pradesh were ‘bogus’. The way ahead is to gradually phase out the upfront subsidy on a time-bound basis and opt, instead, for targeted direct benefit transfers using Aadhaar and other foolproof mechanisms. The idea ought to be to move to a competitive market price rather than a distorted subsidised price that is perverse incentive for arbitrage and artificial shortages. In tandem, we need to genuinely open up LPG marketing so that multiple players can competitively seek custom and, in the process, drive down costs by improving logistics and supply. Such ‘parallel marketing’ was tried out back in 1993, but it failed to take off as there was no holistic policy design with clear-cut norms for infrastructure sharing, market development and the like. If the government were to stress city gas distribution projects, to replace bottled LPG, the investment would boost economic growth as well. A corollary would be a leg added to an emerging market for gas in India. 21. Gas subsidy must be given to which of the following income segment? (a) High income group (b) Medium group (c) Low income group (d) None of the above 22. What are the ways to slash subsidy burden in cooking gas? (a) Stepping up distribution of piped gas (b) Identifying and arresting the bogus customers from the subsidy list. (c) Focusing more on LPG marketing (d) Giving more pipeline connections 23. Which of the following are solutions to the problem of misappropriation of LPG subsidies? (a) Punish people that misappropriate LPG subsidies. (b) Market LPG to sell LPG at competitive market price instead of distorted subsidised price. (c) Phase out upfront subsidies and target direct benefit transfers using Aadhaar and other foolproof mechanisms. (d) Facilitate the economic growth of the country. 24. Which of the following are the consequences of replacing bottled LPG with new gas distribution projects? (a) Economic growth of the country (b) Emergence of a new market of Gas in India (c) Better LPG marketing (d) Both (a) and (b)

Passage – 2 Researchers have recorded the presence of several colonies of the fast-growing alien species of coral (Carijoa riisei) off the coast of Kovalam. This could pose a serious threat to the marine ecology of the region, according to scientists. C.riisei is considered an invasive species because of its capacity to dominate space and crowd out other marine organisms. With its capacity to thickly settle and occupy a variety of surfaces, it can destabilise the marine ecosystem. The fear is that it will crowd out other species like corals, sponges, algae, ascidians that contribute to the rich marine biodiversity of the region. 25. Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the given passage? (a) Certain species of coral like the C.riisei are keystone species, and their population determines the population of other species in the region. (b) Certain species of coral like the C.riisei, if not controlled, will crowd out other species of fish in the region. (c) The uncontrolled proliferation of C.riisei, an invasive species of coral, can disturb the marine ecosystem and cause loss of biodiversity. (d) The government must control the spread of C.riisei otherwise marine biodiversity will be irreparably damaged. 26. In a class, 30% of the students failed in English, 60% in Hindi, and 10% passed in both the subjects. If each student of the class appeared for both the tests, then what percentage of students passed in only English? (a) 40%

(b) 50%

(c) 30%

(d) 60%

27. Sunil finds himself at 15th position from the front of a queue when he moves two places ahead and at the 5th position from the end when he moves three places behind. Find the number of persons in the queue. (a) 24

(b) 25

(c) 26

(d) 27

Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions based on it. Five friends – A, B, C, D and E – are standing in a row, such that three are facing North and the rest south. It is also known that: I.

The extreme ends are occupied by D and E.

II. C is facing South and is standing to the left of E. III. Only two people are standing between C and D. IV. A is standing to the immediate right of both B and D. V. D is standing to the left of E.

PRACTICE PAPER - 1

28. Who is sitting next to E? (a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

36. The average speed of a train is 60 kmph with stoppages and 72 kmph without stoppages. The duration (in minutes) of stoppages per hour is

29. Who is in the middle? (a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

30. The two friends who are facing south are (a) A and E

(b) B and C

(c) C and D

(d) A and C

31. How many statements given below is/are true? I.

B is standing between D and C.

II. Only A is standing between D and C. III. B is standing to the left of A. (a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) None

32. In the following figure, circle represents students playing cricket, triangle represents students playing hockey and square represents students playing chess. Find out the region that represents the students who play both cricket and chess but not hockey? 7 3 1 6

2

4

5

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 5

33. If the price of rice increases by 60%, then by how much percent should the consumer cut down his/her consumption of rice so that his/her expenditure on rice remains constant? (a) 45

(b) 37.5

(c) 38

(d) 28.5

34. The average weight of a class of 13 students is 41 kg. When the weight of the class-teacher is also included, the average weight of the class increases by 0.5 kg. Find the weight of the class-teacher. (a) 44 kg

(b) 48 kg

(c) 47 kg

(d) 45 kg

35. How many three-digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 2, 5, 6, 8 and 0, repetition of digits is not allowed? (a) 60 (b) 72 (c) 48 (d) 96

5

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c) 12

(d) 10

37. In how many ways can a team of 5 members be selected from a group of 8 men and 6 women such that the team comprises at least one man and one woman? (a) 1940

(b) 1980

(c) 2040

(d) 1860

38. Two pipes – A and B – can fill a tank in 36 and 48 minutes respectively. Pipe C can empty the tank in 72 minutes. Find the total time (in minutes) taken to fill the tank if all the three pipes are opened simultaneously into the tank. (a) 26

(b) 22

(c) 25.8

(d) 28.8

39. On selling a T.V. for `22,000 at a discount of 12%, Ram made a profit of 37.5%. What is the absolute difference (in `) between the marked price and the cost price of the T.V.? (a) 10000

(b) 9000

(c) 12000

(d) 15000

40. The amount of water that needs to be added to a 50 litre milk-water solution containing milk and water in the ratio of 7 : 3 in order to form a mixture that has 60% water in it, is (a) 37.5 litres (b) 87.5 litres (c) 55 litres (d) 36.5 litres Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following eight passages and answer the item that follows each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage – 1 The big organised sector players are in a much better position to weather the current storm. Even if their sales fall — in an economy whose two growth engines (private investment and exports) were barely running, the third one (government spending) cannot be revved up due to fiscal constraints, and the shine’s now gone off the fourth lone bright spark (private consumption) — they aren’t going to shut shop. The ones to perish will be the small fish in the informal sector, which accounts for an estimated 40% of India’s GDP and much of whose operations are cash-based.

6

PRACTICE PAPER - 1

41. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage? (a) Launching more schemes which will protect the informal sector in the future is urgently needed. (b) Unless efforts are made to push up economic growth such that all sectors in the economy benefit equally, the smaller business will always suffer. (c) The current crisis will ensure that only the formal and organised sector remains intact thus streamlining the economy. (d) The government must step in and provide some respite for the informal sector such that it can withstand the current crisis. Passage – 2 Climate change can have a dramatic impact on our natural resources, economic activities, food security, health and physical infrastructure. India is one of the countries most affected by climate change. The threat is especially severe in places where people’s livelihoods depend on natural resources. In such areas climate adaptation measures take on a special significance for safeguarding rural livelihoods and ensuring sustainable development. Many Indian institutions have already developed expertise in adaptation and mitigation processes. However, the current challenge is to develop a holistic and integrated approach across sectors. 42. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? (a) The institutions engaged in mitigating the effects of climate change must develop an integrated plan and unify their efforts through coordination. (b) To ensure sustainable development and mitigation of the adverse effects of climate change, rural India must practice climate friendly agriculture. (c) The Ministry of Rural Development must integrate all the policies in the country and ensure that they are implemented to avoid this issue. (d) The government must invest more to ensure that the natural resources, economic activities, food security, health and physical infrastructure is well insulated from adverse effects of climate change. Passage – 3 Today the challenge for India, especially with its growing population, is to provide safe, reliable water to its citizens. Water, of course, is a part of everyday life. It is also the largest mass flux into and out of cities—more than food, freight, people, or anything else. Just as water circulates in the global hydrologic cycle, water in our cities flows in an urban water cycle, one of the modern world’s fundamental systems. Understanding each component in the urban water cycle is the first step to developing sustainable water solutions for our growing population.

43. Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage? (a) India must thoroughly grasp the concept of urban water cycles in order to meet the water demands for its growing population. (b) Water being the largest mass flux in and out of cities, India must understand each component of the urban water cycle. (c) Water cycles and their associated effects must be studied to plan for a better future. (d) Just like the hydrologic cycle the urban water cycle not only affects the entire ecosystem but also has severe implications for urban planning. Passage – 4 The Public-sector banks have contributed significantly to expand the outreach of Indian banking geographically and sectorally. Furthermore, they have been instrumental in providing credit support to the mammoth infrastructural needs of the country. However, the PSBs have been presently affected by several immediate concerns relating to profitability, asset quality and many long-standing issues about capital positions and governance. 44. Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage? (a) There is a need for a radical restructuring of our entire public finance system to resuscitate the beleaguered PSBs. (b) The PSBs, to be truly effective for Indian banking, must improve the quality of their assets and the quality of their governance. (c) The banking sector in India is facing severe hurdles as the PSBs, very crucial to this sector, have been underperforming. (d) The PSBs have been very good for Indian banking; however they must sort out the various urgent problems they are facing. Passage – 5 Open defecation is disastrous when practised by groups in close contact with each other. Because India’s population is huge, growing rapidly and densely settled, it is impossible even in rural areas to keep human faeces from crops, wells, food and children’s hands. Ingested bacteria and worms spread diseases, especially of the intestine. They cause enteropathy, a chronic illness that prevents the body from absorbing calories and nutrients. That helps to explain why, in spite of rising incomes and better diets; rates of child malnourishment in India do not improve faster.

PRACTICE PAPER - 1

45. With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements: 1. In India, it is impossible to keep human faeces from children’s hands. 2. Open defecation malnourishment.

can

lead

to

child

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Passage – 6

Research is now underscoring just how blind the “usversus-them” mind-set can make people when they try to process new political information. Once this mentality kicks in, the brain almost automatically pre-filters facts— even noncontroversial ones—that offend our political sensibilities. Our tendency toward such partisanship is likely the result of evolution—forming groups is how prehistoric humans survived. That’s helpful when trying to master an unforgiving environment with Stone Age technology. It’s less so when trying to foster a functional democracy. 46. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? (a) For a functioning democracy, it is important that the national rhetoric must not be marred by partisanship and biased outlooks. (b) Politics, for its smooth functioning, needs mutual respect for each others ideals and beliefs. (c) In a functional democracy the mentality of “usversus-them” must be avoided. (d) The healthy debates that a functional democracy needs, depend upon the avoidance of one sided and biased arguments. Passage – 7 Justice is mediated by, or comes through the medium of, a process of social thought which in the course of its operation produces a body of ‘common conviction’ about the dictates of justice, backed by a common will or purpose of acting in the strength and under the guidance of that conviction. 47. The statement refers to: (a) the antithesis of justice and ‘common conviction’ (b) the predominance of ‘common conviction’ over common will (c) the predominance of justice over ‘common conviction’ (d) the interrelationship of justice and ‘common conviction’

7

Passage – 8 Estimates suggest that developing countries would bear some 75 to 80 percent of the costs of damages caused by the changing climate. Even 2°C warming above preindustrial temperatures—the minimum the world is likely to experience—could result in permanent reductions in GDP of 4 to 5 percent for Africa and South Asia. Most developing countries use climate-sensitive natural resources for income and well-being. 48. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage? (a) Developing countries must develop strategies to tackle climate change and for the utilisation of their climate-sensitive natural resources. (b) Developing countries should prepare for shouldering the burden of the cost of climate change while also reducing the use of fossil fuels. (c) Developing countries must develop strategies to tackle climate change and for eventually shifting to using resources which are not climate-sensitive. (d) Developing countries must seek the help of developed countries when it comes to funding and transfer of climate friendly technology. 49. A cube of edge 14 cm is cut into 8 smaller identical cubes. Find the ratio of the surface area of a smaller cube to that of the original cube. (a) 1 : 8

(b) 1 : 4

(c) 1 : 2

(d) 1 : 6

50. The present age of Rekha is 4 years more than the square of the present age of Megha. When Megha will be as old as Rekha is now, the age of Rekha will be three years more than 10 times the present age of Megha. If the present ages of Rekha and Megha are integers, find the sum (in years) of the present ages of Rekha and Megha. (a) 34

(b) 29

(c) 42

(d) 56

51. In a certain code language, MECHANIC is coded as NGFLEQKD and HONEST is coded as IQQHUU. How will COMPARISON be coded in the same code language? (a) DQPTFWMVQO (b) AABGRTWUIO (c) AABKJRTIOP

(d) DQPTFXPVQO

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Answer the questions based on the information given below. Two teams, with 4 players each, are formed out of a group of 8 comprising 5 males, viz. Ram, Lakhan, Shyam, Rahul and Vijay, and three females, viz Sita, Geeta and Meeta. No team has more than two females. Ram and

8

PRACTICE PAPER - 1

Lakhan are in the same team and the same is true for Geeta and Shyam. Rahul and Lakhan are not in the same team. Vijay and Meeta are in the same team and this team does not have Sita in it. 52. Who among the following cannot be the member of the team that has Geeta in it? (a) Shyam

(b) Sita

(c) Rahul

(d) Meeta

53. Which of the following pairs of players are from the same team? (a) Ram-Meeta

(b) Sita-Ram

(c) Vijay-Rahul

(d) Rahul-Meeta

54. A group of five persons – Sham, Mukesh, Raju, Vikas and Mohit – decided to enter an arcade in ascending order of their heights i.e. the shortest person would be the first one and the tallest person would be the last one to enter the arcade. Sham entered before Mukesh and after Raju. Mohit was the last one to enter and Raju is not the first person to enter. Who among the five persons was the fourth tallest?

57. Two teams, with 4 players each, are formed out of a group of 8 persons – Ram, Aditya, Ghanshyam, Lovenish, Mahesh, Suresh, Ramesh and Shobhi. Ram and Ghanshyam are not in the same team; Mahesh and Ramesh are not in the same team. Exactly two among Ram, Mahesh and Suresh are in the same team. If Lovenish and Ghanshyam are not in the same team, which of the following can be one of the teams? (a) Ram, Lovenish, Mahesh and Aditya. (b) Ghanshyam, Suresh, Ramesh and Shobhit. (c) Ram, Ramesh, Suresh and Aditya. (d) All of the above. Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

(a) Raju

(b) Vikas

Five students – Aakrosh, Suryavansham, Lakshya, Aladin and Yuva – are standing in a queue. Aakrosh is standing immediately behind Suryavansham. Lakshya is standing ahead of Aladin. At least three students are standing behind Yuva. Lakshya is not the first person from the front in the queue.

(c) Sham

(d) Mukesh

58. Who is the first person from the front in the queue?

55. In a group of three persons namely A, B and C, one is truth teller, who always speaks truth; one is liar, who always speaks lie; one is alternator, who always makes true and false statements alternately, not necessarily in the same order. When the three were inquired about their professions, the following were their replies. A: I am a doctor and B is an engineer.

(a) Yuva

(b) Aladin

(c) Aakrosh

(d) Suryavansham

59. How many distinct arrangements are possible? (a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

60. Who along with Yuva must definitely be standing ahead of Aladin?

B: I am a doctor and C is an engineer.

(a) Suryavansham

(b) Lakshya

C: I am a lawyer and A is an engineer.

(c) Aakrosh

(d) Cannot be determined

If it is known that no two person belong to the same profession, then who is the lawyer? (a) C (b) B (c) A (d) Either B or A 56. Six men – P, Q, R, S, T and U – are standing in a queue. The distance between each of the pairs of two adjacent persons is the same. P is standing 10 m ahead of Q. There is no person between R and S. S is standing 2 m behind T, and U is not among the first three persons from the front in the queue. What is the distance (in m) between T and R? (a) 2 (b) 4

61. Each of the five persons – Ramesh, Suresh, Ganesh, Manish and Harish – is of a different height. Ramesh is taller than at least two persons. Ganesh is taller than Suresh but shorter than Harish. Manish is not the shortest but shorter than Ganesh, and Harish is not the tallest. Who is the second tallest among the five? (a) Manish

(b) Ganesh

(c) Harish

(d) Cannot be determined

62. Four enemies – Raman, Farhan, Devesh and Chandu – are standing at the four corners of a park, which is in the shape of a square. Raman is to the north of Devesh, who, in turn, is to the south-west of Farhan. If Farhan is to the east of Chandu, then in which direction is Chandu with respect to Raman?

(c) 6

(a) South-west

(b) West

(d) 8

(c) North-west

(d) East

PRACTICE PAPER - 1

63. Six persons – A, B, C, D, E and F – are sitting around a circular table. Four of them are facing the centre, while the rest are facing away from the centre of the table. A is sitting second to the right of F, who is a neighbor both B and E. If B and C are sitting diametrically opposite to each other and both of them are facing away from the centre, which of the following statements is definitely true? (a) D is sitting second to the right of B (b) D is sitting second to the left of B (c) D is sitting to the immediate left of C (d) D is sitting to the immediate left of A Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only. Passage – 1 The global food security challenge is unambiguous: by 2050, the world must feed nine billion people. To feed those hungry mouths, the demand for food will be 60 percent greater than it is today. The UN has set ending hunger and achieving food security and promoting sustainable agriculture as the second of its ’17 Sustainable Development Goals’ or SDGs for the year 2030. 64. What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage? (a) There is a need to stop population growth otherwise there will be a shortage in the future. (b) There is a need to prepare for the future by shifting to sustainably produced genetic food. (c) There is a need to diligently pursue the UN goals of food security and sustainable agriculture. (d) There is a need to try to reduce the population while pursuing the goals set by the UN. Passage – 2 Anyone who enjoys ice cream can thank evolution. Just 10,000 years ago, no one past infancy could digest milk sugar, called lactose. Babies always made lactase, the enzyme that breaks down this sugar, but after weaning lactase production would stop. Then along came livestock. Sometime in the past 10,000 years, several different populations—all raising cattle or camels in Northern Europe, East Africa and the Middle East—gained the ability to digest milk for life. Certain gene variants became prevalent that caused lactase production to continue into adulthood.

9

65. Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage? (a) Genetic changes occurred in human populations which domesticated animals. (b) 10,000 years ago animals were domesticated for their milk. (c) Unlike before, nowadays all babies have the ability to produce lactase. (d) Due to a certain genetic variation, humans now produce lactase well into adulthood. Passage – 3 “The official unemployment figures as per the report of the Labour Bureau only include people that are unemployed, but actively seeking a new employment opportunity.” 66. In the above statement, the author implies that: (a) those people who, when unemployed, do not actively search for a job are not included. (b) the report made by the Labour Bureau is full of inaccuracies. (c) there are people who have completely given up on finding new jobs. (d) there are people who are excluded from these figures. Passage – 4 Carbon dioxide readily dissolves in water and which is why the oceans provide a huge reservoir of carbon. Through increasing global temperatures, via human induced global warming, rising sea temperatures may have significant effects on this oceanic carbon dioxide sink. Increasing carbon dioxide concentrations in the atmosphere may slightly reduce oceanic pH and hence lead to a small increase in carbon dioxide uptake. However, as water temperatures increase the solubility of carbon dioxide is reduced and the likelihood of water stratification is increased - both leading to an overall reduction in oceanic carbon dioxide uptake. 67. Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage? (a) Rising sea temperatures will cause increased solubility of carbon. (b) In the long run, the capacity of oceans to absorb carbon will naturally decrease. (c) Carbon sinks are necessary for the regulation of the carbon cycle of the planet. (d) Initially, global warming may be beneficial for oceanic uptake of carbon.

10 PRACTICE PAPER - 1

Passage – 5 The veena, in general, has been described as a complete instrument. The four playing strings and the three drone strings of the veena together provide all the basic components of classical music, sruti and laya, in a single instrument. There is no other instrument with this quality. It is one of the three celestial musical instruments, having references from Vedic times along with the Flute and the Mridangam. The fact that Saraswathi, the goddess of Art, is always identified with Veena, markedly symbolizes that music is synonymous with veena and has primary importance among all forms of fine arts. The noble prize winning physicist Sir C.V. Raman has described the veena as having a unique construction. The string terminations at both ends are curved and not sharp. Also, the frets have much more curvature than any other instrument. Unlike in guitar, the string does not have to be pushed down to the very base of the neck and thus the possibility of generating a rattling sound is completely avoided. This design enables a continuous control over the string tension, which produces more harmonics than any other instrument. The Thanjavur Veena, one of the most ancient and revered musical instruments of South India, has received the Geographical Indication tag. S Krishnaswami's publication entitled “Musical Instruments of India” says that Raghunatha Nayak, ruler of Thanjavur (1614 – 1632), modified the then existing veena, the Saraswati Veena, with 24 fixed frets (mettu), so that all ragas could be played. To this day he is considered to be the father of the Thanjavur Veena. It is also of note that the earlier version of the veena had less than twenty movable frets which had to be adjusted. The fixing of the frets paved the way for the development of the famous scheme of seventy-two melakartas of the Carnatic music system. Thus, it can even be said that the style of presenting Carnatic music has developed largely around the Thanjavur Veena technique.

Which of the given statements is/are correct as per the passage? (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

69. Consider the following statements about musical instruments: 1. The frets in a guitar are less curved as compared to the frets in a Veena. 2. The veena has been described as unique only because of its curved string terminations. Which of the given statements is/are correct as per the passage? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

70. According to the passage, why is Thanjavur Veena said to be one of the most ancient and revered musical instruments of South India? 1. All ragas can be played on the Thanjavur Veena. 2. The style of presenting Carnatic music has developed around the Thanjavur Veena technique. Which of the given statements is/are correct as per the passage? (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. Which of the following statements is correct as per the passage? (a) The Thanjavur Veena could play all the ragas as its frets could be adjusted. (b) Apart from the veena, flute and mridangam no other instruments have references as celestial musical instruments from Vedic times. (c) Sir C.V. Raman was an avid veena player. (d) Ragunatha Nayak is considered as the father of the Thanjavur Veena based on the valuable work done by S Krishnaswami.

The handiwork of the Thanjavur Veena is unique to the artisans who have domicile in and around the town of Thanjavur. The variety of wood used to make the Thanjavur Veena is from a particular strain of matured Jackwood tree, which is unique to Thanjavur area. The craftsmanship and the skill in making the functional resonator (Kudam) of the veena is also unique to the Thanjavur Veena.

72. By using side BC of ∆ABC as the base, another triangle BCD is constructed, such that ∠BAC = ∠BDC and AC is parallel to BD. If the area of ∆ABC is 45 cm2, what is the area of ∆BDC ?

68. Why has the author described the veena as a complete instrument?

73. When the digits of a two-digit number are reversed, the number increases by 27. How many values can the number assume?

1. It is one of the celestial instruments having references from the Vedic times.

(a) 36 cm2

(b) 45 cm2

(c) 48 cm2

(d) 60 cm2

(a) 4

2. It is synonymous with music.

(b) 6

3. It provides all the basic components of classical music.

(c) 8 (d) 12

PRACTICE PAPER - 1 11

74. Out of 460 employees in an organization, 240 employees are MBA, 160 are B.Tech. and 45 are both MBA and B.Tech. How many employees in the organisation are neither MBA nor B.Tech.?

77. The speeds of two trains, which are travelling in the same direction, are 54 and 81 km/hr. A police man, who is sitting in the faster train, passes the slower train in 50 sec. What is the length of the slower train?

(a) 15

(b) 105

(a) 155 m

(b) 350 m

(c) 115

(d) 60

(c) 375 m

(d) Cannot be determined

75. Atul, Yogesh and Riyaz can complete a piece of work in 12, 36 and 54 days respectively. They started the work together, but Atul left after working for 6 days and Yogesh left 8 days before completion of the work. In how many days was the work completed? (a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 20

78. What is the probability that a natural number which is less than 500 and formed by using digits 0, 1, 3, 4, 5, 8 and 9, without repetition, is divisible by 5? (a)

5 22

(b)

2 9

1 7 (d) 3 22 79. The ratio of a two-digit number and the sum of its digits is 9 : 1. If the absolute difference between the digits is 7, what is the number?

(c)

3 5 76. The ratio of the cost prices of articles A and B is 4 : 5 respectively, and that of their selling prices is 7 : 6 respectively. If the profit on selling article A is 40%, what is the profit/loss percentage on selling article B?

(d) 15

(a) 4% Profit (b) 4% Loss

(a) 18

(b) 81

(c) 92

(d) 70

80. Two pipes P1 and P2 can fill an empty tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. If both of them are opened simultaneously into the empty tank, then after how much time (in minutes) must pipe P1 be turned off so that the tank gets completely filled in 12 minutes?

(c) 8% Profit

(a) 8

(b) 6

(d) 8% Loss

(c) 10

(d) 5

ANSWERS 1. (d)

2. (d)

3. (b)

4. (b)

5. (c)

6. (a)

7. (d)

8. (b)

9. (b)

10. (d)

11. (a)

12. (d)

13. (c)

14. (b)

15. (d)

16. (d)

17. (a)

18. (d)

19. (b)

20. (c)

21. (d)

22. (a)

23. (c)

24. (d)

25. (c)

26. (d)

27. (a)

28. (c)

29. (b)

30. (b)

31. (a)

32. (b)

33. (b)

34. (b)

35. (c)

36. (d)

37. (a)

38. (d)

39. (b)

40. (a)

41. (d)

42. (a)

43. (a)

44. (d)

45. (c)

46. (c)

47. (d)

48. (c)

49. (b)

50. (a)

51. (a)

52. (d)

53. (a)

54. (a)

55. (a)

56. (b)

57. (d)

58. (a)

59. (c)

60. (b)

61. (c)

62. (a)

63. (b)

64. (c)

65. (a)

66. (d)

67. (d)

68. (c)

69. (a)

70. (d)

71. (b)

72. (b)

73. (b)

74. (b)

75. (d)

76. (b)

77. (c)

78. (d)

79. (b)

80. (b)