SSC CGL COMBINED GRADUATE LEVEL

TIER-I 2021-22

EXAM

SOLVED PAPERS SETS

26

SOLVED PAPERS WITH DETAILED EXPLANATIONS

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Contents Solved Papers–2021 SET – 07

SET – 01

❖ v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 13.08.2021 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning .................. SGE/2021/ 5 General Awareness ................................................ SGE/2021/ 7 Quantitative Aptitude. ......................................... SGE/2021/ 8 English Comprehension .................................... SGE/2021/ 10

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 17.08.2021 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ................ SGE/2021/ 92 General Awareness .............................................. SGE/2021/ 94 Quantitative Aptitude. ....................................... SGE/2021/ 95 English Comprehension .................................... SGE/2021/ 97

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 17.08.2021 (Shift-II) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 106 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 108 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 109 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 111

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 17.08.2021 (Shift-III) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 120 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 122 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 123 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 125

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 18.08.2021 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 134 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 136 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 137 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 139

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 18.08.2021 (Shift-II) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 148 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 149 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 151 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 152

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 18.08.2021 (Shift-III) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 162 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 164 Quantitative Aptitude. ........................................ SGE/201/165 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 167

SET – 08

SET – 02

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 13.08.2021 (Shift-II) General Intelligence & Reasoning ................ SGE/2021/ 20 General Awareness .............................................. SGE/2021/ 22 Quantitative Aptitude. ....................................... SGE/2021/ 23 English Comprehension .................................... SGE/2021/ 25

SET – 09

SET – 03

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 13.08.2021 (Shift-III) General Intelligence & Reasoning ................ SGE/2021/ 35 General Awareness .............................................. SGE/2021/ 37 Quantitative Aptitude. ....................................... SGE/2021/ 38 English Comprehension .................................... SGE/2021/ 39

SET – 10

SET – 04

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 16.08.2021 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ................ SGE/2021/ 49 General Awareness .............................................. SGE/2021/ 51 Quantitative Aptitude. ....................................... SGE/2021/ 52 English Comprehension .................................... SGE/2021/ 53

SET – 11

SET – 05

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 16.08.2021 (Shift-II) General Intelligence & Reasoning ................ SGE/2021/ 63 General Awareness .............................................. SGE/2021/ 64 Quantitative Aptitude. ....................................... SGE/2021/ 66 English Comprehension .................................... SGE/2021/ 67

SET – 12

SET – 06

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 16.08.2021 (Shift-III) General Intelligence & Reasoning ................ SGE/2021/ 79 General Awareness .............................................. SGE/2021/ 80 Quantitative Aptitude. ....................................... SGE/2021/ 81 English Comprehension .................................... SGE/2021/ 83

SGE/2021/ 3

SET – 13

SET – 20

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 20.08.2021 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 176 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 178 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 179 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 181

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 20.08.2021 (Shift-II) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 191 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 193 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 194 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 195

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 20.08.2021 (Shift-III) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 205 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 207 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 208 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 209

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 23.08.2021 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 218 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 219 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 221 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 222

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 23.08.2021 (Shift-II) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 232 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 233 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 235 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 236

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 23.08.2021 (Shift-III) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 246 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 247 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 249 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 250

SET – 14

SET – 15

SET – 16

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 24.08.2021 (Shift-II) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 275 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 277 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 278 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 279

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 24.08.2021 (Shift-III) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 288 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 289 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 291 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 292

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 11.04.2022 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 305 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 306 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 308 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 309

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 12.04.2022 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 319 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 321 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 322 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 323

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 13.04.2022 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 333 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 335 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 336 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 338

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 20.04.2022 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 347 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 349 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 350 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 352

v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 21.04.2022 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 362 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 364 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 365 English Comprehension ......................... SGE/2021/ 367-376

SET – 21

SET – 22

SET – 23

SET – 17

SET – 24

SET – 25

SET – 18

SET – 26

SET – 19 v v v v

SSC CGL Tier-I (CBE) EXAM Held on : 24.08.2021 (Shift-I) General Intelligence & Reasoning ............. SGE/2021/ 261 General Awareness ........................................... SGE/2021/ 262 Quantitative Aptitude. .................................... SGE/2021/ 264 English Comprehension ................................. SGE/2021/ 265

SGE/2021/ 4

SOLVED PAPER–01

S E T

1

SOLVED PAPER–01

SOLVED PAPER

SSC CGL TIER-I (CBE) EXAM

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING 1. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 12 : 60 : : 16 : ? (1) 121 (2) 201 (3) 210 (4) 112 2. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded ? Question Figures :

Answer Figures :

(1)

Held on % 13.08.2021 (Shift-I) 3. Select the correct combi-nation of mathematical signs that can sequentially replace the * signs and balance the given equation. 42 * 7 * 64 * 11 * 6 * 4 (1) ×, +, –, ÷, = (2) ÷, +, –, ×, = (3) ×, –, +, ÷, = (4) ÷, –, +, ×, = 4. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it. 4

7

6

15

?

21

44 68 60

(1) 24

(2) 20

(3) 18

(4) 19

5. Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

All cones are cubes. All cubes are decagons. No diagonal is a cube. Conclusions : I. Some diagonals are polygons. II. All diagonals are decagons. III. No polygon is a cone. IV. Some cubes are angles. (1) Both Conclusions II and IV follow (2) Only Conclusion I follows (3) Both Conclusions I and II follow (4) Both Conclusions I and III follow 7. Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship among the following classes. Women, Researchers, Introverts

(1)

L__UA__Z__N__AP__L__U__PZ (1) P, N, L, Z, U, A, N (2) N, P, L, U, Z, N, A (3) P, L, U, Z, N, A, N

(2)

(4) N, L, P, A, N, U, Z (2)

(3)

6. Read the given statements and Conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given Conclusions logically follow (s) from the statements. Statements :

(4)

All polygons are angles. All angles are diagonals.

SGE/2021/ 5

(3)

(4) 8. Out of the total number of players,

100 % are in hotel 3

X and the remaining are in hotel Y. If 20 players from hotel Y are shifted to hotel

SOLVED PAPER–01

SOLVED PAPER–01

X, then the number of players in hotel X becomes 50% of the total number of players. If 20 players from hotel X are shifted to hotel Y, then the number of players in hotel X becomes what percent of the total number of players ? (1) 12.75% (3) 20.67%

(2) 26.34% (4) 16.67%

9. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 24, 35, 51, 73, 102, ? (1) 151 (2) 139 (3) 131 (4) 149 10. In a certain code language, ‘PERMIT’ is written as ‘VVLNOG’. How will ‘INERTIA’ be written in that language ? (1) XOYHCZU (2) OMYIZRU (3) XYOHBCU (4) OHYXZCU 11. Four letter -clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the letter -cluster that is different. (1) CYUQ (2) NJFA (3) FBXT (4) TPLH 12. A cube is made by folding the given sheet. In the cube so formed, what would be the symbol on the opposite side of the # symbol ?

are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different. (1) 14 : 210 (2) 18 : 342 (3) 17 : 307 (4) 12 : 156 14. In a certain code language, ‘AROUND’ is coded as ‘52182412144’ and ‘FIX’ is coded as ‘63624’. How will ‘PLASTIC’ be coded in that language ? (1) 1612261920183 (2) 1612521920363 (3) 1812521920383 (4) 1612522021363 15. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. Depression : Mood : : Insomnia : ? (1) Night (3) Sleep

(2) Thinking (4) Dreams

16. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. Horses : Neigh (1) Ducks : Quack (2) Parrots : Bray (3) Pigs : Buzz (4) Hares : Boom 17. Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at ‘PQ’ as shown. Question Figure :

P My7OQFj Q Answer Figures : (1) (1) $ (3) &

(2) + (4) %

13. Four number -pairs have been given, out of which three

(2) (3) (4)

SGE/2021/ 6

18. Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. Question Figures :

Answer Figures :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19. Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (25, 18, 225) (1) (9, 16, 170) (2) (17, 15, 220) (3) (24, 22, 264) (4) (15, 34, 190) 20. Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary. 1. Freeze 2. Freedom 3. Fryer 4. Frozen 5. Fraud 6. Fringe (1) 5, 1, 2, 6, 4, 3 (2) 5, 6, 2, 1, 4, 3 (3) 5, 2, 1, 6, 3, 4 (4) 5, 2, 1, 6, 4, 3 21. Select the option figure that is embedded in the given figure (Rotation in NOT allowed). Question Figures :

SOLVED PAPER–01

SOLVED PAPER–01

Answer Figure :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22. P, L, T, B, N and D are six members of a business family. N is the son of B, who is not the mother of N. L is the brother of B. D and B are a married couple. T is the daughter of D, who is the sister of P. How is N related to T? (1) Sister (2) Mother (3) Brother (4) Father 23. Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. PNNA, RPPE, TRRI, VTTO, ? (1) XWWU (2) XVVU (3) YUUV (4) YVVU 24. How many triangles are there in the given figure ?

(1) 11 (2) 13 (3) 12 (4) 10 25. Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the word that is different. (1) Aptitude (2) Weight (3) Memory (4) Intelligence

GENERAL AWARENESS 26. In which of the following years was the Planning Commission of India set up ? (1) 1945 (2) 1950 (3) 1958 (4) 1962 27. Baghmara Pitcher Plant Sanctuary is located in which of the following states ? (1) Meghalaya (2) Goa (3) Karnataka (4) Assam 28. For which of the following franchise teams did A.B. de Villiers play in IPL 2020 ? (1) Delhi Capitals (2) Mumbai Indians (3) Royal Challengers Bangalore (4) Kolkata Knight Riders 29. Who won the Toyota Thailand Open Women's Singles Title in Bangkok in January 2021 ? (1) PV Sindhu (2) Tai Tzu-ying (3) Carolina Marin (4) Ashwini Ponnappa 30. Who among the following won the '3rd Rabindranath Tagore Literary Prize' for his novel 'The City and The Sea' in December 2020 ? (1) Shekhar Gupta (2) Raj Kamal Jha (3) Rajdeep Sardesai (4) Siddartha Sarma 31. In Leh, the first ever ice climbing festival was celebrated in ______ valley in January 2021. (1) Ripchar (2) Markha (3) Nubra (4) Dras 32. Which of the following is NOT a town/city on the west coast of India ? (1) Karwar (2) Surat (3) Mangalore (4) Gopalpur

SGE/2021/ 7

33. Which of the following places is famous for a copper mine ? (1) Gaya (2) Khetri (3) Keonjhar (4) Satna 34. Which of the following is a process in which hot, less dense materials rise upward and are replaced by colder, more dense materials ? (1) Condensation (2) Radiation (3) Conduction (4) Convection 35. Gurudwara Patalpuri Sahib is located on the bank of river _____. (1) Yamuna (2) Ganga (3) Sutlej (4) Beas 36. Who among the following was one of the founders of the Hindustan Republic Association ? (1) Ram Prasad Bismil (2) Lala Lajpat Rai (3) Surya Sen (4) Jatindranath Mukherjee 37. Who among the following had written Kitab-ul-Hind that gave an incisive description of early 11th Century India ? (1) Al-Kindi (2) Al-Bukhari (3) Al-Biruni (4) Al-Khwarizmi 38. Which of the following statements about Swami Dayanand Saraswati is INCORRECT ? (1) His birthplace Gujarat.

was

(2) He authored the book 'Satyarth Prakash'. (3) He was the founder of Arya Samaj. (4) He was the founder of Brahmo Samaj. 39. ______ is the structural and functional unit of kidney. (1) Ureter (2) Cortex (3) Medulla (4) Nephron

SOLVED PAPER–01

SOLVED PAPER–01

40. In which of the following years was the Second Round Table Conference in London held ? (1) 1925 (2) 1939 (3) 1931

(4) 1941

41. Electron-volt is a unit of ____. (1) current (2) energy (3) power (4) potential difference 42. In December 2020, the Ministry of Home Affairs declared the entire State of ______ as a 'disturbed area' for six more months under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AfSPA). (1) Nagaland (2) Punjab (3) Jharkhand (4) WestBangal 43. Who among the following replaced Morarji Desai as the Prime Minister of India in 1979 ? (1) Chandrasekhar (2) Devi Lal (3) Jagjivan Ram (4) Charan Singh 44. Who among the following is a Padma Vibhushan awardee of 2021 ? (1) Tarlochan Singh (2) Mouma Das (3) Sumitra Mahajan (4) Sudarshan Sahoo 45. Unique Transaction Reference number is a ______ character code used to uniquely identify a transaction in the R TGS system. (1) 17

(2) 34

(3) 22

(4) 45

46. As per the Union Budget of 2021-22, How many regional national Institute of virology will be set up ? (1) Two (3) Four

(2) Six (4) Three

47. Which of the following has the same dimension as that of linear momentum ? (1) Impulse (2) Stress (3) Work (4) Energy 48. Who among the following was elected as the President of Veterinary Council of India in January 2021 ? (1) Dipankar Seth (2) KK Verma (3) Rajeev Arora (4) Umesh Sharma 49. Which of the following schemes is aimed at helping accelerte the uptake of broadband internet services ? (1) PM-DHWANI (2) PM-WANI (3) PM-VAARTA (4) PM-INTERNET 50. Which of the following is the application of sciences such as physics, chemistry, biology, computer science and engineering to matters of law and to the identification of various facts of civilian investigation ? (1) Psychology (2) Morphology (3) Forensic science (4) Kalology

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE 51. The income of A is 45% more than the income of B and the income of C is 60% less than the sum of incomes of A and B. The income of D is 20% more than that of C. If the difference between the incomes of B and D is Rs. 13200, then the income (in Rs.) of C is : (1) 75000 (2) 73500 (3) 72500 (4) 72000

SGE/2021/ 8

52. ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR. The areas of ∆ABC and ∆PQR are 64 cm2 and 81 cm2, respectively and AD and PT are the medians of ∆ABC and ∆PQR, respectively. If PT = 10.8 cm, then AD = ? (1) 8.4 cm (2) 9 cm (3) 9.6 cm 53. If

(4) 12 cm

cos2 θ 2

cot θ + sin2 θ − 1

= 3, 0°< θ

< 90°, then the value of (tanθ + cosec θ) is : (1) 2 3

(2)

5 3 3

(3) 3 3

(4)

4 3 3

54. Length of each side of a rhombus is 13 cm and one of the diagonal is 24 cm. What is the area (in cm 2) of the rhombus ? (1) 240 (2) 60 (3) 300 (4) 120 55. Some fruits are bought at 15 for Rs. 140 and an equal number of fruits at 10 for Rs. 120. If all the fruits are sold at Rs. 132 per dozen, then what is the profit percent in the entire transaction ? (1) 3

(3) 3

1 8

(2) 4

1 2

(4) 2

1 4

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SOLVED PAPER–01

SOLVED PAPER–01

Directions (56–57) : Study the following table and answer the question : Number of cars sold by dealers A, B, C, D & E during first six months of 2018. Month ® January February March April May June Dealer

B

A B C D A

620 600 640 520 548

640 642 635 645 638

56. The ratio of the total number of cars sold by dealer B in January, April and June to the total number of cars sold by dealers A and D in March is : (1) 4 : 3 (2) 10 : 9 (3) 8 : 9 (4) 7 : 5 57. In July 2018, If the sales of cars by the dealer D increases by the same percentage as in June 2018 over its previous month, then what is the number of cars sold by D in July 2018 ? (1) 1020 (2) 959 (3) 1014 (4) 975 58. When x is subtracted from each of 19, 28, 55 and 91, the numbers so obtained in this order are in proportion. What is the value of x ? (1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 5 59. The average of 28 numbers is 77. The average of first 14 numbers is 74 and the average of last 15 numbers is 84. If the14th number is excluded, then what is the average of remaining numbers ? (correct to one decimal places) (1) 77 (2) 74.7 (3) 76.9 (4) 73.1 60. Sides AB and DC of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD are produced to meet at E and sides AD and BC are produced to meet at F. If ∠ADC = 78° and ∠BEC = 52°, then the measure of ∠AFB is :

628 635 640 722 720

635 580 540 740 740

430 450 625 600 650

625 620 740 780 800

(1) 26° (2) 32° (3) 30° (4) 28° 61. Find the value of cot 25° cot 35° cot 45° cot 55° cot 65°. (1)

3

(3)

3 2

(4)

District Male teachers 1650

(1)

41

(2)

23

(3)

56

(4)

46

66. Let ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR and ar (∆ABC) 144 = . If AB = 12 49 ar ( ∆QPR )

cm, BC = 7 cm and AC = 9cm, then PR (in cm) is equal to :

(2) 1

(1) 12

1 3

62. Study the table and answer the question. Table shows District-wise data of the number of primary school teachers posted in schools of a city.

East

then what is the value of (3x – 5y) ? (1) 10 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 11 65. A chord 21cm long is drawn in a circle of diameter 25cm. The perpendicular distance of the chord from the centre is :

(3)

108 7

(2)

49 12

(4)

21 4

67. To do a certain work, A and B work on alternate days with B beginning the work on the first day. A alone can complete the same work in 24 days. If the work gets

Female teachers 2375

completed in 11

1 days, then 3

North

1075

2651

West

1280

1520

B alone can complete

South

1170

1085

part of the original work in :

Central

690

859

What is the ratio of the number of male teachers to the number of female teachers in the city ? (1) 195 : 283 (2) 78 : 113 (3) 586 : 849 (4) 391 : 566 cosec θ

cosec θ

63. cosec θ - 1 + cosec θ + 1 – tan2 θ, 0° < θ < 90°, is equal to : (1) 2 sec2 θ (2) sec2 θ + 1 (3) sec2 θ (4) 1 – tan2 θ 64. If the 5-digit number 676xy is divisible by 3, 7 and 11,

SGE/2021/ 9

7 th 9

(1) 5

1 days (2) 4 days 2

(3) 4

1 days (4) 6 days 2

68. Study the table and answer the question. In the table, production and sale (in 1000 tonnes) of a certain product of a company over 5 years is given. Years 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019

Production Sale (in 1000 tonnes) (in1000 tonnes) 1250 1000 1400 1290 1450 1100 1500 1450 1600 1390

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In which year(s) sale is more than 90% of the production ? (1) 2016, 2018 (2) 2017, 2018 (3) 2015, 2017, 2019 (4) 2016, 2017 69. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 21% after selling a book at 21% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price and selling price of the book is : (1) 100 : 79 (2) 100 : 121 (3) 79 : 100 (4) 121 : 100 70. If x +

x5 +

1 = 4, then the value of x

1 x5

is :

(1) 736 (3) 684

(2) 776 (4) 724

1 1 16 71. If x + y = 4 and x + y = , 15 then what is the value of (x3 + y3) ? (1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 21 (4) 16 72. The value of 20 ÷ 5 of 8 × [9 ÷ 6 × (6 – 3)] – (10 ÷ 2 of 20) is : (1) 6 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 2 73. X, Y are two points in a river. Points P and Q divide the straight line XY into three equal parts. The river flows along XY and the time taken by a boat to row from X to Q and from Y to Q are in the ratio 4 : 5. The ratio of the speed of the boat downstream to that of the river current is equal to : (1) 3 : 10 (2) 3 : 4 (3) 10 : 3 (4) 4 : 3 74. What is the compound interest (in Rs) on a sum of Rs. 8192 for 1

1 years at 15% 4

per annum, if interest is compounded 5-monthly ?

(1) 1640

(2) 1740

(3) 1634 (4) 1735 75. If 8 (x + y)3 – 27 (x – y)3 = (5y – x) (Ax2 + By 2) + Cxy), then what is the value of (A + B – C) ? (1) 16 (2) –26 (3) 36 (4) –16

ENGLISH COMPREHENSION 76. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. A. When we got near, we saw it was the steam rising from hot springs. B. We saw in the distance a great column of smoke. C. We wondered if it came from a chimney or a burning house. D. We thought of taking a bath in the hot water. (1) ACDB (2) ABCD (3) BCAD (4) BCDA 77. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them contains an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. You must avoid riding in a crowded bus/or travelling in a metro/during rush hour/as both are quiet unpleasant experiences. (1) You must avoid riding in a crowded bus (2) during rush hour (3) as both are quiet unpleasant experiences (4) or travelling in a metro 78. Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word. GENERIC (1) Specific (2) Precise (3) Definite (4) Universal

SGE/2021/ 10

79. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Work and domestic ______ made Kajal short-tempered. (1) pressures (2) gravities (3) weights (4) forces 80. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Raise the bar (1) To grow taller (2) To raise the price (3) To win a competition (4) To set higher goals 81. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. A herd or flock of animals being driven in a body (1) Crowd (2) Cluster (3) Throng (4) Drove 82. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. Had you/not reached in time,/we will have/lost our lives. (1) lost our lives (2) not reached in time (3) Had you (4) we will have 83. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. Bang for the buck (1) Dash against something (2) More value for money (3) Less value for money (4) A sorrowful heart 84. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. GRADUAL (1) Abrupt (2) Regular (3) Gentle (4) Slow 85. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required,

SOLVED PAPER–01 select 'No substitution'.

86.

87.

88.

89.

A.

B.

C.

D.

The toy drummer plays the drum if you press the button at the back. (1) played the drum if you are pressing (2) No substitution (3) playing the drum if you pressed (4) will play the drum if you will press Select the option that can be used as a one-word substutute for the given group of words. A group of three novels or plays, each complete in itself (1) Triplet (2) Triumvir (3) Trivet (4) Trilogy Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. SEIZE (1) Catch (2) Grab (3) Loosen (4) Snatch Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word. REGIME (1) Territory (2) Rule (3) Space (4) Country Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the right order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. But the eagle, in wrath, gave the beetle a flap of his wing, and straightaway seized upon the hare and devoured him. The beetle therefore interceded with the eagle, begging of him not to kill the poor suppliant, and pleaded with him not to kill so small an animal. When the eagle flew away, the beetle flew after him, to learn where his nest was. A hare, being pursued by an eagle, took himself for refuge to the nest of a beetle, whom he begged to save him.

SOLVED PAPER–01 (1) DBAC

(2) DCAB

(3) ACDB (4) CBAD 90. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. India is formally moving ahead to ______ 21 MIG-29 and 12 Sukhoi-30MKI fighters from Russia along with upgrades of their existing fleets. (1) achieve (2) advance (3) accomplish (4) procure 91. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. (1) Wildernesses (2) Exterminated (3) Unmanageable (4) Voilence 92. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select 'No substitution'. While washing your hands, rub them together for 20 seconds to remove the microbes on them. (1) No substitution (2) the microbes on they (3) the microbes on those (4) the microbes on their 93. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in indirect speech. "Everything is going to be alright," said the doctor. (1) The doctor said that everthing are going to be alright. (2) The doctor said that everthing is going to be alright. (3) The doctor said that everthing will be alright. (4) The doctor said that everthing was going to be alright.

SGE/2021/ 11

94. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice. The invigilator is advising the students not to carry calculators into the examination hall. (1) The students have been advised not to carry calculators into the examination hall by the invigilator. (2) The students were advised not to carry calculators into the examination hall. (3) The students are being advised by the invigilator not to carry calculators into the examination hall. (4) The students were advised the invigilator not to carry calculators into the examination hall. 95. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. (1) Decrease (2) Pieceful (3) Specified (4) Creature Directions (96-100) : In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. What every tourist must take back from Bhutan is pure honey, especially Putka, "Antibiotic" honey produced (96) Melipona Bees (stingless bees) a breed found in protected areas (97) 700 to 1,500 metres above sea level. Due (98) their small size, they can get larger nutrients (99) regular honeybees. It has a tangy/sour taste and can (100) your sore throat in a matter of minutes. 96. (1) of (2) by (3) through (4) with 97. (1) midst (2) between (3) after (4) among 98. (1) for (2) to (3) at (4) of

SOLVED PAPER–01 99. (1) and

SOLVED PAPER–01

(2) then

3. (2) 42 * 7 * 64 * 11 * 6 * 4

(3) than (4) though 100. (1) calm (2) pacify (3) appease (4) soothe

1. (4)

2. (1)

3. (2)

4. (1)

5. (2)

6. (2)

7. (3)

8. (4)

9. (2)

10. (2)

11. (2)

12. (3)

13. (3)

14. (2)

15. (3)

16. (1)

17. (2)

18. (4)

19. (3)

20. (4)

21. (1)

22. (3)

23. (2)

24. (1)

25. (2)

26. (2)

27. (1)

28. (3)

29. (3)

30. (2)

31. (3)

32. (4)

33. (2)

34. (4)

35. (3)

36. (1)

37. (3)

38. (4)

39. (4)

40. (3)

41. (2)

42. (1)

43. (4)

44. (4)

45. (3)

46. (3)

47. (1)

48. (4)

49. (2)

50. (3)

51. (2)

52. (3)

53. (2)

54. (4)

55. (1)

56. (1)

57. (3)

58. (2)

59. (2)

60. (4)

61. (2)

62. (4)

63. (2)

64. (3)

65. (4)

66. (4)

67. (4)

68. (1)

69. (2)

70. (4)

71. (2)

72. (4)

73. (3)

74. (3)

75. (3)

76. (3)

77. (3)

78. (4)

79. (1)

80. (4)

81. (4)

82. (4)

83. (2)

84. (1)

85. (2)

86. (4)

87. (3)

88. (2)

89. (1)

90. (4)

91. (4)

92. (1)

93. (4)

94. (3)

95. (2)

96. (2)

97. (2)

98. (2)

99. (3)

100. (4)

1. (4) 12 × 5 = 60

LM12 – 1 = 5OP Q N2 Similarly, 16 × 7 = 112

LM16 – 1 = 7OP Q N2

No diagonal is a cube.

⇒ 42 ÷ 7 + 64 – 11 × 6 = 4 ⇒ 6 + 64 – 66 = 4 ⇒ 70 – 66 = 4 ⇒4=4 4. (1) First Column 4 + 15 + 3 = 22 ⇒ 2 × 22 = 44 Second Column (7 + ? + 3) × 2 = 68 ⇒ ? + 10 =

All cubes are decagons.

E + A ⇒ O1-type of Conclusion “Some decagons are not diagonals”. All polygons are diagonals.

68 2

No diagonal is a cube.

A + E ⇒ E-type of Conclusion “No polygon is a cube”.

⇒ ? = 34 – 10 = 24 Third Column 6 + 21 + 3 = 30 ⇒ 2 × 30 = 60 5. (2) L

U

N

UA

All angles are diagonals.

P

Z/ L

N

A P Z /L N U A P Z

6. (2) First, second, third and fourth statements are Universal Affirmative (A-type). Fifth statement is Universal Negative (E-type). All polygons are angles.

All angles are diagonals.

A + A ⇒ A-type of Conclusion “All polygons are diagonals”. Conclusion I is the Converse of it.

No diagonal is a cube.

A + E ⇒ E-type of Conclusion “No angle is a cube. Thus, only Conclusion I follows. 7. (3) Some women may be Researchers and vice-versa. Some women may be Introverts and vice-versa. Some Researchers may be Introverts and vice-versa. Some woman Researchers may be Introverts. Some Researchers who are Introverts may be women. Some women who are Introverts may be Researchers.

All cones are cubes.

R All cubes are decagons.

Women

ea

A + A ⇒ A-type of Conclusion “All cones are decagons.” All cones are cubes.

A + E ⇒ E-type of Conclusion “No cone is a diagonal”.

SGE/2021/ 12

rc

he

rs

Introverts

No cube is a diagonal.

2. (1)

es

8. (4)

100 % players are in Ho3

tel X.

SOLVED PAPER–01 ∴ 100 –

SOLVED PAPER–01

100 % players are in 3

Hotel Y. =

300 – 100 200 = = 66.66% 3 3

When 20 players from Hotel Y are shifted to Hotel X, the numebr of players in Hotel X becomes 50% of the total number of players. 50 – 33.33% = 20 ∴ 16.67% = 20 players If 20 players from the Hotel X are shifted to Hotel Y, the remainig percentage of players in Hotel X = 33.33 – 16.67 ≈ 16.67% 9. (2) 24 + 11 = 35 35 + 16 = 51 51 + 22 = 73 73 + 29 = 102 102 + 37 = 139 [11 + 5 = 16; 16 + 6 = 22; 22 + 7 = 29; 29 + 8 = 37] 10. (2) P E R M I T

V V L N O G +6

But, N

–4

J

–5

F A 12. (3) After folding the given sheet in the form of a cube :

&

lies opposite # .

%

lies opposite

+ .

@

lies opposite

$ .

13. (3) 14 : 210 ⇒ 14 × 14 + 14 ⇒ 196 + 14 = 210 18 : 342 ⇒ 18 × 18 + 18 ⇒ 324 + 18 = 342 12 : 156 ⇒ 12 × 12 + 12 ⇒ 144 + 12 = 156 But, 17 × 17 + 17 ⇒ 289 + 17 = 306 [Not 307] 14. (2) Codes for Vowels : A ⇒ 27 – 1 = 26; 26 × 2 = 52 E ⇒ 27 – 5 = 22; 22 × 2 = 44 I ⇒ 27 – 9 = 18; 18 × 2 = 36 O ⇒ 27 – 15 = 12; 12 × 2 = 24 U ⇒ 27 – 21 = 6; 6 × 2 = 12 A R O U N D

OL

–4

52 18 24 12 14 4

–6 OL

O M Y I Z R U

I N E R T I A +6

The code for consonant is its position number in the English alphabetical series. F I X

OL

17. (2) 18. (4) The triangle remains at its position in the subsequent figures but it becomes larger alternately. The other four designs move in the following manner in each subsequent figure :

19. (3) (25, 18, 225) 25 × 18 = 225 2 Similarly, (24, 22, 264)

⇒

24 × 22 = 264 2 20. (4) Arrangement of words as per order in the Dictionary : 5. Fraud

⇒

+6 OL

OL ⇒ Opposite letter. Therefore,

15. (3) The mood of a person turns to be bad in depression. Depression refers to the state of feeling very sad and without hope. Similarly, sleep is affected in Insomnia. Insomnia is a the condition of being unable to sleep. 16. (1) Here, “Animal : Sound” relationship has been shown. Neigh is the sound produced by a horse. Similarly, Quack is the sound produced by a duck.

2. Freedom

6 36 24

–6 OL

1. Freeze +6 OL –6

Therefore, P L A S T I C

6. Fringe 16 12 52 19 20 36 3

11. (2)

C F T

–4 –4 –4

Y B P

–4 –4 –4

U X L

–4 –4 –4

4. Frozen

Q T 3. Fryer

H

SGE/2021/ 13

SOLVED PAPER–01

SOLVED PAPER–01 27. (1) Baghmara Pitcher Plant Sanctuary is located in South Garo Hills District of Meghalaya.

21. (1)

22. (3) B is the father of N. D is the mother of N. T is the daughter of D. Therefore, N is brother of T. 23. (2) P N N

+2

R

+2

+2

P

+2

+2

P

A

+2

E

T R R

+2 +2 +2

I

+2

V

+2

T

+2

T O

X V V U

VOWELS

●

It is named after the Pitcher plant (Nepenthes Khasiana), a rare insectivorous plant which is being protected and conserved in the sanctuary.

●

The Pitcher plant is regarded as a sacred plant by the Garo tribe.

28. (3) AB de Villiers plays for Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB) in the Indian Premier League (IPL). ● After originally playing for Delhi Daredevils, he moved to Royal Challengers Bangalore (RCB) in the fourth season of IPL. ●

24. (1) A B

I J K H G

L F

C M N

29. (3) Carolina Marin of Spain won the women's singles titles at the Yonex Thailand Open in Bangkok on 17 January 2021. ●

E

D

The triangles are : ∆BJA; ∆BJG; ∆BAG; ∆BLM; ∆BLK; ∆BKM; ∆BFE; ∆BFG; ∆BGE; ∆BNC; ∆AGE Thus, there are altogether 11 triangles in the given figure. 25. (2) Obviously, Weight is different from the other three words. Aptitude, Memory and Intelligence are natural ability and skill inherent in the person. Weight is the measure of mass. 26. (2) The Planning Commission was established on 15 March 1950, with Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as the Chairman. ● It was dissolved on 17 August 2014 and replaced by the NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015.

As of 2021, AB de Villiers holds the record for most man of the match awards in IPL history.

She defeated Tai Tzu Ying of Chinese Taipei in the finals to win the title.

The Yonex Thailand Open was the first badminton tournament of 2021 by Badminton World Federation (BWF). 30. (2) Writer and chief editor of The Indian Express, Raj Kamal Jha, won the Rabindranath Tagore Literary Prize 2020 for his book, The City and the Sea. ●

●

His novel is based on the atrocious Nirbhaya case of sexual assault and murder.

31. (3) In Leh, the first-ever Ice climbing festival was celebrated in Nubra valley in January 2021. ●

The seven day event was organized by Nubra Adventure Club.

SGE/2021/ 14

Nubra is said to have the potential to be the ice climbing capital in the Himalayas. 32. (4) Gopalpur is a coastal town on the Bay of Bengal coast in Ganjam district of Odisha. ● It is known as a commercial port, a famous sea beach and a tourist destination on the east coast of India. 33. (2) Khetri is a town in Jhunjhunu district of Rajasthan that is known for copper mining. ● It is situated at the foothills of the Aravalli Range. 34. (4) Convection is a process in which heat is transferred from one place to another by mass motion of a fluid such as water, air or molten rock. ● Convection currents are the result of differential heating. Lighter (less dense), warm material rises while heavier (more dense) cool material sinks. ● It is this movement that creates circulation patterns in the atmosphere, in water, and in the mantle of Earth. 35. (3) Gurdwara Patal Puri is situated at Kiratpur in Rupnagar district of Punjab. ● It has been built on the banks of the river Sutlej. ● This town was established by 6th Sikh Guru -- Guru Har Gobind. 36. (1) The Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was a revolutionary organisation set up by Ram Prasad Bismil in 1923. ●

It was formed after Mahatma Gandhi called off the non-cooperation movement in 1922. ● The organisation aimed to fight against British colonial rule in India and achieve independence for the country. 37. (3) Kitab-ul-Hind, also known as Tarikh-ul-Hind, was written in Arabic language by Al●

SOLVED PAPER–01 Biruni, an Iranian scholar and polymath. ● It is a survey of Indian life based on his study and observations in India between 1017 and 1030. ●

Al Biruni accompanied Mahmud of Ghazni on his invasions into India.

38. (4) The Brahmo Samaj was started at Calcutta on 20 August 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Debendranath Tagore. ●

It was one of the most influential socio-religious movements of the 19th century.

●

It was against priesthood, rituals and sacrifices.

●

Given other options in question with respect to Swami Dayanand are true.

39. (4) Nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney. ●

Its chief function is to regulate the concentration of water and soluble substances like sodium salts by filtering the blood, reabsorbing what is needed and excreting the rest as urine.

40. (3) The Second Round Table Conference was held in London during September-December 1931. ●

Gandhi represented Indian National Congress at the conference.

●

Gandhi’s attendance at the conference was made possible by the Gandhi-Irwin Pact that was signed earlier on 5 March 1931.

41. (2) Electron volt is a unit of energy. ●

It is commonly used in atomic and nuclear physics.

●

An electron volt is equal to the energy gained by an electron when the electrical potential at the electron increases by one volt.

SOLVED PAPER–01 42. (1) The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) on 30 December 2020 declared the entire State of Nagaland as a “disturbed area” for six more months under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA). ● AFSPA empowers security forces to conduct operations anywhere and arrest anyone without prior notice. ● The AFSPA has been in force in Northeast since 1958 and Nagaland acquired Statehood in 1963. 43. (4) Chaudhary Charan Singh replaced Morarji Desai as the Prime Minister of India on 28 July, 1979. ● Earlier, he served as Deputy Prime Minister, Home Minister and Finance minister in the Janata government headed by Morarji Desai. ● Charan Singh served as the 5th Prime Minister of India between 28 July 1979 and 14 January 1980. 44. (4) Odia sculptor Sudarshan Sahoo, sculptor was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2021. ● He received the Padma Vibhushan for his exceptional and distinguished service in the field of art. 45. (3) Unique Transaction Reference (UTR) number is a 22 character code used to uniquely identify a transaction in RTGS system. ● It is generated in RTGS system for uniquely interestingly recognizing any exchange. ● The arrangement of UTR is predefined and is produced by the bank starting the exchange. 46. (3) The Union Budget 2021-22 announced four regional branches of National Institutes for Virology. ● These branches will come up under a new centrally sponsored scheme, PM AatmaNirbhar Swasth Bharat Yojana.

SGE/2021/ 15

47. (1) The impulse acting on an object is equal to the change in linear momentum of that object. ●

The dimensions of linear momentum and change in linear momentum are the same.

●

Hence, the dimensions of impulse will be the same as that of the momentum.

48. (4) Veterinarian Dr Umesh Sharma was, in January 2021, elected as president of the Veterinary Council of India (VCI) for the second time. ●

Sharma had served as the VCI president from 2014 to 2017.

49. (2) Prime Minister Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (PMWANI) scheme aims to elevate wireless internet connectivity in the country with the help of public Wi-Fi networks. ●

These would be provided through Public Data Offices (PDOs).

●

The scheme was announced by the Department of Telecommunications in January 2021.

50. (3) Forensic Science is defined as the application of science to those criminal and civil laws that are enforced by the police agencies in a criminal justice system. ●

It involves the use of multiple disciplines such as physics, chemistry, biology, computer science and engineering for evidence analysis.

51. (2) Let, B’s income = Rs. 100 ∴ A’s income = Rs. 145 (A + B)’s income = Rs. 245 C’s income =

245 × 40 100

= Rs. 98 D’s income =

98 × 120 100

= Rs. 117.6