April 2022

40

Whatever you can do or dream you can, begin it. April 2022 Volume 7 No. 10 Printed and published by

Pillutla Viswanath for Triumphant Institute of Management Education Private Limited Address: 1-2-63/2, Kalasiguda, 95-B, 2nd Floor, Siddamsetty Complex, Parklane, Secunderabad 500 003. Telangana.

Printed at Reprographic and Printing Services Address: 1-20-272, Plot No. 8/9, Rasoolpura (Village & Town), Secunderabad 500 003. Telangana.

Dear Reader,

W

illiam Hutchison Murray (1913–1996) was a legendary Scottish mountaineer. In his much-acclaimed The Scottish Himalaya Expedition, he wrote: “But when I said that nothing had been done I erred in one important matter. We had definitely committed ourselves and were halfway out of our ruts. We had put down our passage money—booked a sailing to Bombay. This may sound too simple but is great in consequence. Until one is committed, there is hesitancy, the chance to draw back, always ineffectiveness. Concerning all acts of initiative (and creation), there is one elementary truth the ignorance of which kills countless ideas and splendid plans: that the moment one definitely commits oneself, the providence moves too. A whole stream of events issues from the decision, raising in one’s favour all manner of unforeseen incidents, meetings and material assistance, which no man could have dreamt would have come his way. I learned a deep respect for one of Goethe’s couplets: Whatever you can do or dream you can, begin it. Boldness has genius, power and magic in it!” The reader should note that this ‘Goethe couplet’ is not from Goethe but from an extremely loose translation of Goethe’s ‘Faust’ made by John Anster in 1835. However, that should not take the focus away from Murray’s great idea of staying committed to achieving one’s dream, even in the face of insurmountable obstacles. As you know, the primary objective of Current Affairs Cracker is to improve your knowledge of current events and issues in different fields, especially in politics and economics. To this end, the current issue features short essays on a wide range of political, economic, social, and other kinds of developments. There are several short articles, including on the latest bi-monthly monetary policy statement, why cryptocurrencies should be banned, the many missile tests of North Korea and their impact on regional and global peace, and why Israel is accusing international rights organizations of antisemitism. All competitive entrance tests feature questions on general knowledge. To help you prepare better for this all-important test area, Improve your GA features a 150-question exercise on a diverse range of issues.

All rights reserved. Reproduction

Also, this issue features a full-length SSC CGLE (Tier–1) Mock Test Paper, complete with detailed solutions. We are sure this model paper will come in handy to improve your practice in different test areas.

in any manner/form, without

Stay Curious!

written permission, is prohibited.

Please share your feedback at [email protected].

Editor: Pillutla Viswanath

– Bharat C. Jain April 2022

1

CONTENTS Eco Fundas for You

3

5

3 Monetary Policy: RBI keeps key interest rates unchanged 3 Cryptocurrencies should be banned, says RBI Dy Gov. 3 Indian Economy Round Up Current Issues & Events

Current Event Chronicle

27

Mock Test Paper

36

SSC CGL (Tier-I)

52

Inspiration

Perspective LLLL

10

3 North Korea ramps up missile tests 3 Israel labels Amnesty tag of apartheid state as anti-semitism 3 India rejects China–Pak joint statement 3 New India-U.S. Partnership under SAMRIDH launched 2 April 2022

14

Rack your brains to answer these 150 questions on General Knowledge

Adverse Effects of High Fiscal Deficit Indian Economy

Improve Your GA

Eco Fundas for you

Adverse Effects of High Fiscal Deficit Bharat C. Jain When does Fiscal Deficit arise?

Rising Interest Rates

F

A

In short, Fiscal Deficit is the total borrowing of the government to fund the allocations and expenditures listed in the Union Budget.

Lending to the Government of India carries zero risk, as it does not default on repayment. However, greater government borrowing would mean less money is available for lending to industrial and other sectors of the economy. This would push up interest rates for the borrowers.

iscal Deficit arises when the government has expenditure higher than the revenue it generates. To bridge this expenditure–revenue deficit, the government resorts to borrowing. This borrowing is called Fiscal Deficit.

The Budget Estimate for Fiscal Deficit (total borrowing) for 2021–22 was projected at ₹15,06,812 crore. During the pandemic, the tremendous burden of expenditure, especially toward subsidies for foodgrains and fertilizers, placed considerable pressure on the finances of the government.  So, the Fiscal Deficit target was revised (this revised figure is called Revised Estimate). The Revised Estimates for 2021–22 showed a Fiscal Deficit of ₹15,91,089 crore. In other words, what this figure means is that the Government of India borrowed this huge amount of money in 2021–22! Yes, you got it right: total borrowing of a whopping ₹15.91 lakh crore in one year! So, to say that we are living way beyond our means would be an understatement. However, given the Covid pandemic– induced shutdown and disruption in economic activity, there was little elbow room for the Central Government to raise revenue and hence, it had to resort to heavy borrowings to fund its welfare measures like providing free food grains and direct cash transfer to millions of heavily impacted vulnerable sections of the society. 

What are the adverse consequences of a high Fiscal Deficit?

A

high and rising Fiscal Deficit is bad for the general state of the economy, trade balance, and currency exchange

rate.

high Fiscal Deficit would mean the Government of India’s borrowings are high. When the Government of India borrows money from the public, it creates demand for money.

Reduced Business & Economic Activity

H

igher interest rates add to overall cost of production, thereby increasing cost of operations. This, in turn, renders business activity, like increased production and expanding operations, unviable. Hence, a lot of businesspersons opt out of such economic activity as they no longer find it profitable.

Reduced Income & Employment Generation

I

f due to higher interest rates businesspersons opt out of economic activity or close down manufacturing plants, employment generation is reduced. This, in turn, means that the retrenched (those thrown out of jobs) and the unemployed do not earn income, i.e., they would not have purchasing power. If purchasing power goes down, aggregate demand for goods and services also decreases. This, in turn, would also reduce industrial activity, thereby depressing overall economic scenario.

Lowers Exchange Rate & Rises Trade Deficit

S

ometimes the Government of India would borrow from foreign sources. When the Government of India is lent April 2022

3

Eco Fundas for you

Adverse Effects of High Fiscal Deficit money, foreign exchange comes into the economy. This will increase the supply of foreign currency, which would be exchanged for the Indian rupee. The rise in demand for the Indian currency would increase its value. Simply put, as foreign entities begin to exchange their currency for the Indian rupee, the value of the Indian rupee will also increase. For example, the exchange value of the Indian rupee for each U.S. dollar is ₹75. In this scenario, let us say, when a foreign entity is exchanging its currency for the Indian rupee in large volumes, the exchange value may fall to ₹73 per U.S. dollar. This means that while earlier one U.S. dollar fetched ₹75, it would now fetch only ₹73. This would hurt exports and encourage imports. How? As an importer, in the past you were paying ₹75 per U.S. dollar of import while now you are paying only ₹73. This means that your cost of operations goes down. However, if you are an exporter, this would mean that you would earn less from your exports; earlier you were earning ₹75 for one U.S. dollar of export while now it is only ₹73. If exports decrease and imports increase, trade deficit would widen. Also, high borrowings now would mean that the country’s financial position becomes precarious as it piles higher debt and interest burden on future generations. In short, a high Fiscal Deficit is dangerous in every way possible: for general economic activity, employment generation, exchange rate, and trade balance. CAC

The author is Executive Editor, CURRENT AFFAIRS CRACKER.

4 April 2022

Indian Economy

Monetary Policy: RBI keeps key interest rates unchanged

I

n the Bi-Monthly Monetary Policy Statement, released on 10 February 2022, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) kept the benchmark interest rate unchanged at 4 percent and decided to continue with its accommodative stance in the backdrop of an elevated level of inflation. This is the tenth time in a row that the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) headed by the RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das (pictured) has maintained the status quo. The RBI had last revised its policy repo rate or the shortterm lending rate in May 2020, in an off-policy cycle to perk up demand by cutting the interest rate to a historic low. This is the first MPC meeting after the presentation of Budget 2022–23 in Parliament on 1 February 2022. The below note is an excerpt from the RBI statement on the latest MPC meeting. Based on an assessment of the current and evolving macroeconomic situation, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decided to + keep the policy repo rate under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) unchanged at 4.0 percent; + reverse repo rate under the LAF remains unchanged at 3.35 percent and the marginal standing facility (MSF) rate and the Bank Rate at 4.25 percent; + the MPC also decided to continue with the accommodative stance if necessary to revive and sustain growth on a durable basis and continue to mitigate the impact of Covid–19 on the economy, while ensuring that inflation remains within the target going forward. These decisions are in consonance with the objective of achieving the medium-term target for consumer price index (CPI) inflation of 4 percent within a band of +/– 2 percent, while supporting growth.

The main considerations underlying the decision are set out in the statement below.

Assessment of Global Economy

S

ince the MPC’s meeting in December 2021, the rapid spread of the highly transmissible Omicron variant and the associated restrictions have dampened global economic activity. The global composite purchasing managers’ index (PMI) slipped to an 18-month low of 51.4 in January 2022, with weakness in both services and manufacturing. World merchandise trade continues to grow. There are, however, headwinds emanating from persistent container and labour shortages, and elevated freight rates. In its January 2022 update of the World Economic Outlook, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) revised global output and trade growth projections for 2022 downward to 4.4 percent and 6.0 percent from its earlier forecasts of 4.9 percent and 6.7 percent, respectively. After reversing the transient correction that had occurred towards end-November, commodity prices resumed hardening and accentuated inflationary pressures. With several central banks focused on policy normalisation, including ending asset purchases and earlier than expected hikes in policy rates, financial markets have turned volatile. Sovereign bond yields firmed up across maturities and equity markets entered correction territory. Currency markets in emerging market economies (EMEs) have exhibited two-way movements in recent weeks, driven by strong capital outflows from equities with elevated uncertainty on the pace and quantum of U.S. rate hikes. The latter also led to an increasing and volatile movement in U.S. bond yields.

Assessment of Domestic Economy

T

he first advance estimates (FAE) of national income released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) on 7 January 2022 placed India’s real gross domestic product (GDP) growth at 9.2 percent for 2021–22, surpassing its pre–pandemic (2019–20) level. All major components of GDP exceeded their 2019–20 levels, barring private consumption. April 2022

5

Indian Economy In its 31 January 2022 release, the NSO revised real GDP growth for 2020–21 to (–)6.6 percent from the provisional estimates of (–)7.3 percent. Available high frequency indicators suggest some weakening of demand in January 2022 reflecting the drag on contact– intensive services from the fast spread of the Omicron variant in the country. Rural demand indicators – two–wheeler and tractor sales – contracted in December–January. Area sown under Rabi up to 4 February 2022 was higher by 1.5 percent over the previous year. Among the urban demand indicators, consumer durables and passenger vehicle sales contracted in November–December on account of supply constraints while domestic air traffic weakened in January under the impact of Omicron. Investment activity displayed a mixed picture – while import of capital goods increased in December, production of capital goods declined on a year–on–year (y–o–y) basis in November. Merchandise exports remained buoyant for the eleventh successive month in January 2022; non–oil non–gold imports also continued to expand on the back of domestic demand. The manufacturing PMI stayed in expansion zone in January at 54.0, though it moderated from 55.5 in the preceding month. Among services sector indicators, railway freight traffic, e–way bills, and toll collections posted y–o–y growth in December–January; petroleum consumption registered muted growth and port traffic declined. While finished steel consumption contracted y–o–y in January, cement production grew in double digits in December. PMI services continued to exhibit expansion at 51.5 in January 2022, though the pace weakened from 55.5 in December. Headline CPI inflation edged up to 5.6 percent y–o–y in December from 4.9 percent in November due to large adverse base effects. The food group registered a significant decline in prices in December, primarily on account of vegetables, meat and fish, edible oils, and fruits, but sharp adverse base effects from vegetables prices resulted in a rise in y–o–y inflation. Fuel inflation eased in December but remained in double digits. Core inflation or CPI inflation excluding food and fuel stayed elevated, though there was some moderation from 6.2 percent in November to 6.0 percent in December, driven by transportation and communication, health, housing and recreation and amusement. Overall system liquidity continued to be in large surplus, although average absorption (through both the fixed and

6 April 2022

variable rate reverse repos) under the LAF declined from ₹8.6 lakh crore during October–November 2021 to ₹7.6 lakh crore in January 2022. Reserve money (adjusted for the first– round impact of the change in the cash reserve ratio) expanded by 8.4 percent (y–o–y) on 4 February 2022. Money supply (M3) and bank credit by commercial banks rose (y–o–y) by 8.4 percent and 8.2 percent, respectively, as on 28 January 2022. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased by U.S.$55 billion in 2021–22 (up to 4 February 2022) to U.S.$632 billion.

OUTLOOK

S

ince the December 2021 MPC meeting, CPI inflation has moved along the expected trajectory. Going forward, vegetables prices are expected to ease further on fresh winter crop arrivals. The softening in pulses and edible oil prices is likely to continue in response to strong supply–side interventions by the Government and increase in domestic production. Prospects of a good Rabi harvest add to the optimism on the food price front. Adverse base effect, however, is likely to prevent a substantial easing of food inflation in January. The outlook for crude oil prices is rendered uncertain by geopolitical developments even as supply conditions are expected to turn more favourable during 2022. While cost– push pressures on core inflation may continue in the near term, the RBI surveys point to some softening in the pace of increase in selling prices by the manufacturing and services firms going forward, reflecting subdued pass–through. On balance, the inflation projection for 2021–22 is retained at 5.3 percent, with Q4 at 5.7 percent. On the assumption of a normal monsoon in 2022, CPI inflation for 2022–23 is projected at 4.5 percent with Q1:2022–23 at 4.9 percent; Q2 at 5.0 percent; Q3 at 4.0 percent; and Q4:2022–23 at 4.2 percent, with risks broadly balanced. Recovery in domestic economic activity is yet to be broad– based, as private consumption and contact–intensive services remain below pre–pandemic levels. Going forward, the outlook for the Rabi crop bodes well for agriculture and rural demand. The impact of the ongoing third wave of the pandemic on the recovery is likely to be limited relative to the earlier waves, improving the outlook for contact–intensive services and urban demand. The announcements in the Union Budget 2022–23 on boosting public infrastructure through enhanced capital expenditure are expected to augment growth and crowd in private investment through large multiplier

Indian Economy effects. The pick–up in non–food bank credit, supportive monetary and liquidity conditions, sustained buoyancy in merchandise exports, improving capacity utilisation and stable business outlook augur well for aggregate demand. Global financial market volatility, elevated international commodity prices, especially crude oil, and continuing global supply– side disruptions pose downside risks to the outlook. Taking all these factors into consideration, the real GDP growth for 2022–23 is projected at 7.8 percent with Q1:2022–23 at 17.2 percent; Q2 at 7.0 percent; Q3 at 4.3 percent; and Q4:2022–23 at 4.5 percent  The MPC notes that inflation is likely to moderate in H1: 2022–23 and move closer to the target rate thereafter, providing room to remain accommodative. Timely and apposite supply side measures from the Government have substantially helped contain inflationary pressures. The potential pick up of input costs is a contingent risk, especially if international crude oil prices remain elevated. The pace of the domestic recovery is catching up with pre–pandemic trends, but private consumption is still lagging. Covid–19 continues to impart some uncertainty to the outlook. Measures announced in the Union Budget 2022–23 should boost aggregate demand. The global macroeconomic environment is, however, characterised by deceleration in global demand in 2022, with increasing headwinds from financial market volatility induced by monetary policy normalisation in the systemic advanced economies (AEs) and inflationary pressures from persisting supply chain disruptions. Accordingly, the MPC judges that the ongoing domestic recovery is still incomplete and needs continued policy support. It is in this context that the MPC has decided to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 4 percent and to continue with an accommodative stance if necessary to revive and sustain growth on a durable basis and continue to mitigate the impact of Covid–19 on the economy, while ensuring that inflation remains within the target going forward. All members of the MPC – Dr Shashanka Bhide, Dr Ashima Goyal, Prof. Jayanth R. Varma, Dr Mridul K. Saggar, Dr Michael Debabrata Patra, and Shaktikanta Das – unanimously voted to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 4.0 percent. For your information: Dr Shashanka Bhide is Senior Advisor, National Council of Applied Economic Research, Delhi; Dr. Ashima Goyal is Emeritus Professor, Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research, Mumbai; Prof. Jayanth R. Varma is

Professor at the Indian Institute of Management Ahmedabad; Dr Mridul K. Saggar is Executive Director, RBI Board, and Dr Michael Debabrata Patra, is RBI Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy.

DDD

Cryptocurrencies should be banned, says RBI Dy Gov.

T

he Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Deputy Governor T. Rabi Sankar said that banning cryptocurrencies is

the most advisable choice for India as they are akin to Ponzi schemes and “may even be worse”.

T. Rabi Sankar Deputy Governor, RBI Addressing an Indian Banks Association event, Rabi Sankar said, “We have seen that crypto-technology is underpinned by a philosophy to evade government controls. Cryptocurrencies have specifically been developed to bypass the regulated financial system. These should be reasons enough to treat them with caution. We have also seen that cryptocurrencies are not amenable to definition as a currency, asset or commodity; they have no underlying cash flows, they have no intrinsic value; that they are akin to Ponzi Schemes, and may even be worse. Banning cryptocurrency is perhaps the most advisable choice open to India and there are strong reasons to keep cryptocurrencies away from the formal financial system”. Rabi Sankar said that cryptocurrencies can wreck the currency system, the monetary authority, the banking system, and in general, the government’s ability to control the economy. He added that while Ponzi schemes invested in income earning assets, cryptos are just “gambling instruments”.

April 2022

7

Indian Economy Rabi Sankar’s statement comes after the RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das expressed concerns over cryptocurrencies. Das had said that these instruments could be harmful to macroeconomic stability. At a press conference after the latest RBI Monetary Policy Committee meeting, Shaktikanta Das had cautioned investors while investing in cryptocurrencies. “I think it is my duty to tell investors that what they are investing in cryptocurrencies, they should keep in mind that they are investing at their own risk. They should keep in mind that these cryptocurrencies have no underlying (asset). Not even a tulip,” Das said. Rabi Sankar said that the cryptocurrencies threaten the financial sovereignty of a country and make it susceptible to strategic manipulation by private corporates creating these currencies or governments that control them. He said that the very purpose of cryptocurrencies is that they “bypass established intermediation and control arrangements that ensure integrity of financial transactions”, such as KnowYour-Customer regimes, Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Combating the Financing of Terrorism (CFT) rules, etc. The fact that they are anonymous, decentralised systems that operate purely virtually makes cryptocurrencies particularly attractive to illegal/illegitimate transactions which have been largely filtered out of the formal financial system, Rabi Sankar said. Quoting a report this year in the Wall Street Journal, Rabi Sankar informed that total crimes using cryptocurrencies in 2021 was estimated to be $14 billion. “We have already noted that there is no basis for valuation of cryptocurrencies. Since valuation is largely based on beliefs, and not on underlying value, it is bound to have a destabilising effect on monetary stability of a country through large-scale wealth loss to investors (if it is adopted widely), even if it not allowed to be used as a currency,” he said. The RBI Deputy Governor further shed light on the “socially wasteful energy use” of crypto infrastructure. “About 900 new Bitcoin a day require electricity worth $45mn a day. By some estimates, electricity use of bitcoins equalled that of the entire country of Switzerland in 2019. There does not appear to be any case to allow cryptocurrencies to be legitimised in India. Nonetheless, various arguments have been extended to permit cryptocurrencies and subject them to close regulations,” Rabi Sankar said, adding that “we have examined the arguments proffered by those advocating that cryptocurrencies should be regulated and found that none of them stands up to basic scrutiny”.

DDD 8 April 2022

Indian Economy Round Up Govt bans import of foreign-made drones

T

he Central Government has banned import of foreign manufactured drones except for those required for defence, security, and R&D purposes. The decision has been taken with a view to promote local manufacturing under Make in India scheme. Import of drone components however will be permitted as earlier and will not require any approvals. In September 2021, the Union Cabinet cleared a production– linked incentive (PLI) scheme to make India a drone hub by 2030. The PLI scheme provides up to 20 percent incentive to manufacturers of drones and drone components. It came close on the heels of the recent liberalisation of rules, which has made owning and operating drones easier. The Central Government allocated ₹120 crore for the scheme and it will be spread over three years. This amount is nearly double the combined turnover of all domestic drone manufacturers in FY21, the Ministry of Civil Aviation had said. Manufacturers will get an incentive of up to 20 percent on the value addition made by them.

DDD RBI extends liquidity facility to health services

T

he Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposed to extend the term–liquidity facility of ₹50,000 crore offered to emergency health services by three months till 30 June 2022. Last year in May, the RBI had announced an on–tap liquidity window of ₹50,000 crore, at the repo rate with tenors of up to three years, to boost provision of immediate liquidity for ramping up Covid–19–related healthcare infrastructure and services in the country. Banks were incentivised for quick delivery of credit under the scheme through extension of priority–sector classification to such lending up to 31 March 2022. Under the scheme, banks were expected to create a Covid–19 loan book. By way of an additional incentive, such banks were eligible to park their surplus liquidity up to the size of

Indian Economy the Covid–19 loan book with the RBI under the reverse repo window at a rate of 25 basis points (bps) lower than the repo rate, i.e., 40 bps higher than the reverse repo rate.

He further said that Periodic Labour Force Survey also

Up to 4 February 2022, banks have deployed their own funds to the tune of ₹9,654 crore towards Covid–19–related emergency health services, the RBI said.

participation rate has gone up, adding that with the revival

The central bank also extended the on–tap liquidity window for contact–intensive sectors up to 30 June 2022. In the first week of June 2021, the RBI had decided to open a separate liquidity window of ₹15,000 crore at the repo rate with tenors of up to three years available till 31 March 2022 for certain contact–intensive sectors. Banks have deployed their own funds to the tune of ₹5,041 crore (up to 4 February 2022) to the entities under contact–intensive sectors.

DDD Institutional Employment is Up

T

he Union Minister for Labour and Employment Minister Bhupender Yadav has said, the institutional employment

in the country has increased by 22 percent within the span of seven years. While replying to supplementary in the Rajya Sabha, the Minister said that the second round of Quarterly Employment Survey for the period July to September 2021 indicated that two lakh institutional employment has been generated in the country despite the challenges posed by the Covid–19 pandemic.

indicated that unemployment rate has decreased in the country during the financial year 2019–20 while labour force of the economy, all three labour market indicators namely worker population ratio, labour force participation rate and unemployment rate showed a swift recovery.

DDD Indian economy contracted by 6.6% in FY21

I

ndian economy contracted by 6.6 percent in 2020–21 on account of outbreak of Covid–19 and subsequent nationwide lockdown to contain the pandemic. As per the provisional estimates released in May 2021, the GDP had contracted by 7.3 percent in 2020–21. “Real GDP or GDP at constant (2011– 12) prices for the years 2020–21 and 2019–20 stands at ₹135.58 lakh crore and ₹145.16 lakh crore, respectively, showing a contraction of 6.6 percent during 2020–21 as compared to growth of 3.7 percent during 2019–20,” National Statistical Office said. CAC

Key for Geography Qs - Pg. 24 1. 2

6. 1

11. 4

16. 2

21. 1

26. 3

31. 3

36. 1

41. 1

46. 2

2. 1

7. 4

12. 1

17. 1

22. 4

27. 3

32. 1

37. 4

42. 2

47. 3

3. 1

8. 2

13. 4

18. 3

23. 1

28. 3

33. 1

38. 3

43. 2

48. 3

4. 3

9. 1

14. 2

19. 1

24. 1

29. 2

34. 3

39. 2

44. 1

49. 1

5. 4

10. 2

15. 3

20. 3

25. 2

30. 2

35. 2

40. 4

45. 1

50. 2

April 2022

9

Current Issues & Events

North Korea ramps up missile tests

N

orth Korea conducted its largest missile test since 2017, sending a suspected intermediate-range ballistic missile soaring into space, seen as taking the nuclear-armed country a step closer to resuming longrange testing. South Korea’s National Security Council (NSC), which convened a rare emergency meeting presided over by President Moon Jae-in, said the test appeared to involve an intermediaterange ballistic missile (IRBM), which North Korea

Moon Jae-in

has not tested since 2017.

The launch takes North Korea a step closer to fully scrapping a self-imposed moratorium on testing its longest-range intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs). He noted that this month’s  flurry of missile tests  was reminiscent of the heightened tensions in 2017, when North Korea conducted multiple nuclear tests and launched its largest missiles, including some that flew over Japan. North Korean leader Kim Jong-Un has said he is no longer bound by that moratorium, which included a stop to nuclear weapons tests and was announced in 2018 amid a flurry of diplomacy and summits Kim Jong-Un

with then-U.S. President Donald Trump.

North Korea’s rulers suggested in January 2022 they could restart those testing activities because the United States and its allies had shown no sign of dropping their “hostile policies”.

10 April 2022

The U.S. said the launch demonstrates the threat posed by North Korea’s unlawful weapons of mass destruction and ballistic missile programmes and called on Pyongyang to engage in “sustained and substantive” dialogue. It is unclear if IRBMs were included in Kim's moratorium, but those, too, have not been tested since 2017. South Korea said the missile is estimated to have reached an altitude of 2,000 km and flown for 30 minutes to a distance of 800 km. IRBMs typically have ranges of 1080 to 5,600 km, while ICBMs have ranges exceeding 5,600 km. The launch could make January the busiest ever for North Korea's missile programme, which analysts say is expanding and developing new capabilities despite strict sanctions and United Nations Security Council resolutions that ban the country's ballistic missile tests. Its latest launches included a test of two short-range ballistic missiles and their warheads, and an updated long-range cruise missile system. The test came less than a week before the opening of the Winter Olympics in Beijing, which is North Korea’s main political and economic partner. Pyongyang has said it would be skipping the Games because of the Covid–19 pandemic and “hostile forces”. “Kim seems to be ramping up tests in bid to pressure both Washington and Beijing over sanctions just ahead of the Olympics,” said Uk Yang, research fellow at Center for Foreign Policy and National Security. The tests would also appear to be the final nail in the coffin for Moon's last-ditch push for a peace deal with North Korea before he leaves office in May. “It’s clear that North Korea is saying inter-Korean relations will need to start from scratch,” he said. In an address ahead of the New Year, Kim Jong Un called for bolstering the military with cutting-edge technology at a time when talks with South Korea and the United States have stalled. Since then, North Korea has tested a dizzying array of

Current Issues & Events weapon types, launch locations, and increasing sophistication as denuclearisation talks remain stalled. The tests appear aimed at modernizing North Korea's military, bolstering national pride ahead of several major North Korean holidays, and sending a message of strength as the country grapples with economic crises caused by sanctions and Covid–19 lockdowns.

@@@

Israel labels Amnesty tag of apartheid state as anti-semitism

A

mnesty International has labelled Israel an apartheid state in a report, making it the latest human rights group to charge Tel Aviv with imposing a system of racial segregation. Titled “Israel’s Apartheid against Palestinians”, the 211-page report concludes that the occupation state has imposed a “cruel system of domination” and is committing “crimes against humanity”. In its designation of Israel as an apartheid state, Amnesty went further than previous reports, which concluded that occupation state is practicing a system of racial segregation but limited the practice as a feature of areas under its control. Amnesty is more expansive in its designation and applies Israel’s practice of apartheid to the state's international operations. Amnesty argues that “almost all of Israel’s civilian administration and military authorities” are involved “in the enforcement of the system of apartheid against Palestinians across Israel” and in the West Bank and Gaza Strip, as well as “against Palestinian refugees and their descendants outside the territory”. Israel rejects those allegations as antisemitic, saying that, among other things, they ignore the rights and freedoms enjoyed by its Arab citizens.

Israeli Arab party hits back.

The head of an Arab party in Israel who made history last year by joining the governing coalition said he would not use the word “apartheid” to describe relations between Jews and Arabs within the country. “I would not call it apartheid,” Mansour Abbas said in response to a question at an online event organized by the

Washington Institute for Near East Policy, a D.C-based think tank. Speaking in Hebrew, he noted that he was in the coalition and could join the government itself if he wanted to. “I prefer to describe the reality in objective ways. If there is discrimination in a certain field, then we will say Mansour Abbas that there is discrimination in Leader, United Arab List that specific field.” Abbas heads the United Arab List, known in Hebrew as Ra’am, a small Islamist party that gave crucial support to the coalition now governing Israel, which includes parties from across the political spectrum. Arabs make up some 20% of Israel’s population of nearly 9.5 million. They have citizenship, including the right to vote, and have a major presence in the medical profession and universities, among other fields. They have close familial ties to the Palestinians in the West Bank and Gaza and largely identify with their cause.

@@@

I

India rejects China–Pak joint statement

ndia rejected references to Jammu and Kashmir and an economic corridor passing through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK) in a China–Pakistan joint statement and called on the two countries not to interfere in India’s internal affairs or to alter the status quo in areas illegally occupied by Pakistan. Additionally, India has firmly asserted that the region as well as the Union Territory of Ladakh “have been, are and will” always remain integral and inalienable parts of India. Regarding the reference to the China–Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) in the statement, External Affairs Ministry spokesperson Arindam Bagchi said India has consistently conveyed its concerns to China and Pakistan on the projects. India “resolutely opposes” any attempts to change the status quo by “other countries, as also by Pakistan” in the areas under the illegal occupation of Islamabad, he said. Bagchi said India expects the “parties concerned” not to interfere in matters that are internal affairs of India. April 2022

11

Current Issues & Events Resources for Innovative Delivery of Healthcare (SAMRIDH) initiative, which will improve access to affordable and quality healthcare for vulnerable populations in tier-2 and tier-3 cities, and rural and tribal regions.

Arindam Bagchi spokesperson, MEA

The joint statement was issued on 6 February 2022 following talks in Beijing between Chinese President Xi Jinping and Pakistan Prime Minister Imran Khan. Bagchi said India has “noted references to J&K and the so-called China-Pakistan Economic Corridor in the joint statement. We have always rejected such references and our position is well known to China and Pakistan. In this instance too, we reject reference to J&K in the joint statement. The Union Territory of J&K and the Union Territory of Ladakh

In 2020, USAID, IPE Global, and stakeholders from the Indian government, academia, and the private sector developed the innovative SAMRIDH blended finance facility to combine public and philanthropic funds with commercial capital to create and rapidly scale market-based health solutions. This new partnership will enhance SAMRIDH’s efforts to reach vulnerable populations, leveraging AIM’s expertise in innovation and entrepreneurship. AIM and SAMRIDH will leverage philanthropic capital, and public sector resources to offset barriers for commercial investments in small and medium health enterprises to invest in and scale healthcare solutions. The collaboration will focus on innovations across the healthcare landscape with the common goal to mount an effective response to Covid–19 and build health system preparedness for future infectious disease outbreaks and health emergencies.

have been, are, and will always remain integral and inalienable parts of India," he added. On CPEC, Bagchi said “we have consistently conveyed our concerns to China and Pakistan on the projects in the so-called CPEC, which are in India's territory that has been illegally occupied by Pakistan. We resolutely oppose any attempts to change the status quo by other countries, as also by Pakistan, in the areas under the illegal occupation of Pakistan. We call upon the parties concerned to cease such activities”. The CPEC is part of China's ambitious Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). India has been severely critical of the BRI as the U.S.$50 billion corridor passes through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). 

@@@

New India-U.S. Partnership under SAMRIDH launched

A

tal Innovation Mission (AIM), National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog, and the U.S. Agency

for International Development (USAID) announced a new partnership under the Sustainable Access to Markets and

12 April 2022

Amitabh Kant CEO, NITI Aayog Speaking during the virtual launch of the event, CEO NITI Aayog Amitabh Kant said that blended financing has the potential to redefine development finance, by enabling partnerships that unlock greater pools of affordable capital for scaling-up businesses that deliver both financial and social returns. “Given the disruptions triggered by the pandemic, and its continued threat, there is no sector more important than healthcare that needs an accelerated pace of reform and increased investments, to ensure everyone has access to

Current Issues & Events

Veena Reddy

Dr Chintan Vaishnav

Mission Director, USAID

Director, AIM

affordable and quality healthcare services. There lies a unique opportunity to catalyze the space of healthcare innovation and entrepreneurship using innovative financing opportunities like blended finance, that leverages philanthropic funding to reduce the risk for commercial investments. This approach enables increased private capital flows to fill the current financing gap in health sector and builds an enabling ecosystem for innovation adoption in health systems.”

Highlighting the new pathways to improve health systems

Highlighting the focus of the call for proposals, Mission Director of Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog Dr Chintan Vaishnav said, “Atal Innovation Mission and SAMRIDH will seek solutions from innovators and entrepreneurs on a range of topics, including solutions to strengthen the healthcare infrastructure, improve diagnostic products and services, build the capacity of healthcare workers, and tactics for communication and behaviour change. Notably, there will be a focus on mental health solutions, with an emphasis on support for healthcare providers and patients recovering from adverse effects of the Covid–19 pandemic.”

address complex healthcare challenges. The partnership with

Reflecting on the partnership, USAID/India Mission Director Veena Reddy said, “USAID celebrates the success of SAMRIDH in this new partnership which will strengthen India’s health systems with sustainable business solutions and innovations. This collaboration will further the shared commitment of Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog and USAID to leverage innovative financing solutions to unlock greater investment towards improving healthcare services for India’s most vulnerable populations.”

in India, Ashwajit Singh, Managing Director, IPE Global, said, “The disruptions triggered by Covid–19 amplified the gaps in health systems but have also brought to the fore opportunities to accelerate India’s healthcare reforms. The USAID-supported SAMRIDH initiative adopts a holistic approach to provide both financial and technical support to enterprises that bring to the table unique propositions to AIM, NITI Aayog will bolster SAMRIDH’s efforts to scale sustainable healthcare models and demonstrate innovative financing mechanisms to improve the quality of spending in the health sector.” Following opening remarks from leaders, an informative and compelling white paper titled, ‘Reimagining Healthcare in India through Blended Finance’, was released. The white paper offers an overview of blended finance and its role in promoting healthcare access in India, while providing case studies on how to apply blended finance approaches and examining the current challenges to achieving blended financing at scale. The event continued with a call for proposals from innovators and entrepreneurs, particularly women-led enterprises, working on high impact health innovations in India, and concluded with a panel discussion on the need to scale blended financing market solutions and innovations in the Indian healthcare ecosystem. CAC

April 2022

13

Directions for questions 1 to 100: Select the correct alternative from the given choices. 1. 2. 3.

National Startup Day, as announced by the Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi, is celebrated on (1) 16th January. (2) 17th January. (3) 18th January. (4) 19th January. (5) 20th January. Which startup did not win the National Startup Awards 2021 in the category of Agriculture? (1) Shapos Services Private Limited (2) Agrirain Agro Industries India (3) Atreya Innovations Private Limited (4) Zentron Labs Private Limited (5) Athreya Global Solutions Who of the following persons will lead the Indian Women’s Hockey Team for Asia Cup 2022? (Clue: picture below)

6.



7.

8.



(1) Deep Grace Ekka (2) Savita Punia (3) Gurjit Kaur (4) Vandana Kataria (5) Rani Ramphal

4.

Which of the following was adjudged as the ‘Best Private Bank in India’ at the Global Private Banking Awards 2021? (1) ICICI Bank (2) HDFC Bank (3) Kotak Mahindra Bank (4) Axis Bank (5) IndusInd Bank

5.

Identify the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India who was present at a virtual event declaring the results of ATL Space Challenge 2021. (1) K. Vijaya Raghavan (2) Chintan Vaishnav (3) Sudhir Kumar (4) Manoj Ahuja (5) None of these

14 April 2022

9.



Indian conglomerate Adani Group and POSCO agreed to set up an integrated steel mill in Gujarat. The steel major POSCO is based in (1) Japan. (2) Spain. (3) South Korea. (4) UK. (5) Indonesia. According to ‘India State of Forest Survey Report 2021’, which state has the largest forest cover in absolute terms? (1) Arunachal Pradesh (2) Chhattisgarh (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Maharashtra (5) Odisha Which of the following statement(s) about the recently released ‘India State of Forest Report 2021 is/are true? (1) The report was released by the Minister for Environment, Forest, and Climate Change Bhupender Yadav. (2) The report was prepared by the Forest Survey of India. (3) The report stated an increase of 2,261 sq. km. in the total forest and tree cover in the country. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 2 and 3 The first BRICS Sherpas Meeting 2022 was held virtually on 18–19 January 2022. Which country has taken on the rotating Chairmanship of BRICS in 2022? (1) China (2) India (3) Russia (4) South Africa (5) Brazil

10. India Meteorological Department has released ‘Statement of Climate of India during 2021’. In this connection, which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (1) The annual mean and surface air temperature averaged over India during 2021 was 0.44 degrees Celsius. (2) The year 2021 was the fifth warmest year since nationwide records commenced in 1901. (3) The 2021 annual rainfall over the country as a whole was 105% of its LPA based on the 1961– 2010 period. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 2

Improve your GA 11. Which country is moving its capital to a new city named ‘Nusantara’? (1) Malaysia (2) Indonesia (3) Papua New Guinea (4) Philippines (5) Mongolia

17. Who among the following is the winner of ICC Women’s Rachael Heyhoe Flint Trophy for ICC Women’s Cricketer of the Year 2021? (Clue: picture below)

12. Which northeastern states celebrate their Statehood Day on 21st January 2022? (a) Manipur (b) Meghalaya (c) Tripura (d) Sikkim (e) Mizoram

(1) a, b, c (3) b, c, d (5) c, d, e

(2) a, b, c, d (4) b, c, d, e

13. A novel species of rain frog was discovered and named after environmental activist Greta Thunberg. In which country is this rain frog discovered? (1) Nicaragua (2) Columbia (3) Panama (4) Brazil (5) Peru 14. Who among the following persons was the recipient of the International Association of Working Women Award in January 2022? (Clue: picture below)



(1) Aishwarya Rai (3) Harnaaz Sandhu (5) Manushi Chillar

(2) Sushmita Sen (4) Lara Dutta

15. ______ was presented the Netaji Award 2022 by the Netaji Research Bureau on Subhas Chandra Bose’s 125th Birth Anniversary. (1) Shinzo Abe (2) Francoise Hollande (3) Angela Merkel (4) Ban ki Moon (5) Vladimir Putin 16. A quantity of 606.19 LMT of paddy has been procured in Kharif Marketing Season 2021–22 up to 23rd January 2022 at MSP from farmers. Identify the state which is the top contributor of paddy procurement. (1) Telangana (2) Chhattisgarh (3) Haryana (4) Madhya Pradesh (5) Punjab



(1) Tommy Beaumont (2) Smriti Mandhana (3) Lizelle Lee (4) Gaby Lewis (5) Danny Wyatt

18. Which company has recently become a decacorn, with a valuation crossing U.S.$10.7 billion? (1) Swiggy (2) Innovaccer (3) Meesho (4) Infra.Market (5) PharmEasy 19. Prime Minister Narendra Modi hosted the first India– Central Asia Summit in virtual format on 21st January 2022, which was attended by Presidents of five Central Asian countries. Identify the wrong match (President – Country). (1) Kassym Jomart Tokayev – Kazakhstan (2) Sadyr Japarov – Kyrgyz Republic (3) Emomali Rahmon – Tajikistan (4) Gurbanguly Berdimuhamedov – Turkmenistan (5) Ilham Aliyev – Uzbekistan 20. The National Conference on Agriculture for Summer Campaign 2021–22 was held on 27 January 2022. The season for the cultivation of summer crops is known as (1) Rabi. (2) Kharif. (3) Zaid. (4) Mausam. (5) None of these 21.

International Customs Day is celebrated on (1) 26th January. (2) 27th January. (3) 25th January. (4) 28th January. (5) 24th January.

22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to Corruption Perceptions Index 2021? (1) Transparency International, the global coalition against corruption, released the index. (2) Denmark, Finland, and New Zealand occupied the 1st rank. (3) India ranks 85 with a score of 40. (4) 1 and 3 (5) 1, 2 and 3

April 2022

15

Improve your GA 23. Which Indian IT company has been recognized as the fastest growing IT services brand by Brand Finance in its Global 500 2022 Report? (1) TCS (2) Infosys (3) Wipro (4) Tech Mahindra (5) HCL Technologies 24. Who among the following persons has recently been appointed Chief Economic Adviser of India? (Clue: picture below)



(1) S. Somnath (3) Urjit Patel (5) Viral Acharya

(2) Dr Anantha Nageswaran (4) Manoj Pande

25. To which country India’s Brahmos Aerospace Private Limited will supply shore–based ‘Anti–Ship Missile System’? (1) Thailand (2) Vietnam (3) Philippines (4) Indonesia (5) Malaysia 26. Which country has recently announced a billion dollar package to protect the natural wonder Great Barrier Reef? (1) New Zealand (2) Japan (3) Australia (4) United States (5) China 27. The UN Environment Programme is celebrating 50 years of its existence (1972–2022). In this connection, which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (1) The headquarters of UNEP is in Nairobi, Kenya. (2) Inger Andersen is the present Executive Director of UNEP. (3) UNEP along with WHO has recently launched a campaign against microplastics in cigarettes. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 2 and 3 28.

India has recently paid U.S.$29.9 million towards (1) UN regular budget assessments. (2) UN Peacekeeping. (3) World Food Programme. (4) meeting enhanced share in IMF. (5) UN climate action programme.

16 April 2022

29. Which of the following groups has recently conducted a 12–day maritime exercise dubbed ‘Neptune Strike 22’? (1) ASEAN (2) QUAD (3) NATO (4) BRICS (5) G20 30. Who among the following is the winner of the 2022 Australian Open in the women’s singles category? (Clue: picture below)



(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Aryna Sabalenka Ashleigh Barty Barbora Krejcikova Iga Swiatek Karolina Pliskova

31. Who is the author of the book titled ‘The U.S.$10 Trillion Dream’? (Clue: picture below)



(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Subhash Chandra Garg Shaktikanta Das Viral Acharya R. Gandhi Rajiv Mehrishi

32. Exports of marine products registered a growth of 35% to U.S.$6.1 billion during April–December 2021. Which is the top export destination for the country’s marine products? (1) China (2) Japan (3) U.S. (4) Vietnam (5) Thailand 33. On 30th August 2021, the UN General Assembly proclaimed _____ as World Wetlands Day. (1) 1st February (2) 2nd February (3) 3rd February (4) 5th February (5) 6th February

Improve your GA 34.

The World Pulses Day is observed on (1) 8th February. (2) 5th February. (3) 10th February. (4) 12th February. (5) 13th February.

35. Identify the person who is not a recipient of Padma Vibhushan 2022. (Clue: picture below)

40. On which of the following pillars does the Union Budget 2022–23 focus? (a) Inclusive development (b) Productivity enhancement (c) Energy transition (d) Climate action (e) Poverty eradication



(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Prabha Atre Radheyshyam Khemka Bipin Rawat Kalyan Singh Victor Banerjee

36. 17 persons were awarded Padma Bhushan in 2022. Who among the following is not a recipient of this award in the field of Trade and Industry? (1) N. Chandrasekharan (2) Satyanarayana Nadella (3) Sundararajan Pichai (4) Cyrus Poonawalla (5) Rajiv Mehrishi 37. Two new Ramsar sites in the country were announced on World Wetlands Day. In this connection, which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (1) One of the notified new Ramsar sites, Khijadia Wildlife Sanctuary is in Gujarat. (2) Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh is the other site that was added to the list. (3) India now has a network of 49 Ramsar sites. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 2 and 3 38.

In which state is India’s first geological park coming up? (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Telangana (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Gujarat (5) Odisha

39. According to data released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, what is the Real GDP or GDP at constant (2011–12) prices recorded for the year 2020–21 (first revised estimates)? (1) –6.6% (2) 3.7% (3) –1.4% (4) 6.2% (5) 1.6%

(1) a, b, c (3) b, c, d, e (5) c, d, e

(2) a, b, c, d (4) b, c, d

41. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Golden Jubilee celebrations of ICRISAT. Identify the correct statement(s) in this regard. (1) ICRISAT stands for International Crops Research Institute for Semi–Arid Tropics. (2) The organization is based in Hyderabad. (3) Prime Minister said India has set a target of Net Zero by 2070. (4) 1 and 3 (5) 1, 2 and 3 42. A pilot movement of food grains on a vessel from Patna (Bihar) to Pandu (Guwahati) has been launched recently. In this connection which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (1) This facility is a new gate to the ‘Gateway of North–East’. (2) This inland water transport route covers National Waterway 1 and NW 2. (3) This route also touches the India–Bangladesh Protocol Route. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 2 43. INS ‘Vagir’, built as part of Project 75, began sea trials on 2nd February 2022. This vessel is a/an (1) Submarine. (2) Aircraft carrier. (3) Frigate. (4) Destroyer. (5) Corvette. 44. The IUCN has recently given the OECM tag to ‘Aravali Biodiversity Park’ in (1) Rajasthan. (2) Haryana. (3) Gujarat. (4) Madhya Pradesh. (5) Maharashtra.

April 2022

17

Improve your GA 45. Who among the following is the recipient of the ‘FIFA Best Men’s Player of the Year 2021 Award’? (Clue: picture below)



(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Cristiano Ronaldo Mohamed Salah Robert Lewandowski Lionel Messi Karim Benzema

46. The Government of India has decided to continue the National Service Scheme (NSS) over the 15th Finance Commission cycle (2021–22 to 2025–26). In this connection, which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (1) The scheme was launched in the year 1969. (2) The motto of NSS is ‘Not Me, But You’. (3) The outlay for the extended period is ₹1,627 crore. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 3 47. 25 National Waterways (NWs) have been found viable by the Inland Waterways Authority of India. Identify the incorrect match (NW – State). (1) NW 1 – UP, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal (2) NW 2 – Assam (3) NW 3 – Kerala (4) NW 4 – Andhra Pradesh (5) NW 5 – Gujarat 48. The tableau of which state bagged the Best State Tableau Award of Republic Day Parade 2022? (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Karnataka (3) Meghalaya (4) Maharashtra (5) None of these 49. On 3 February 2022, the IBBI organized International Conference on ‘MSME: Legislative and Regulatory Challenges’ in association with UNCITRAL RCAP. In this connection, which of the following statement(s) is/ are true? (1) IBBI stands for Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India. (2) UNCITRAL stands for United Nations Commission on International Trade Law. (3) The present Chairperson of IBBI is Navrang Saini. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 2

18 April 2022

50. In which state are the newly renamed places, Narmadapuram, Kundeswar Dham, and Makhan Nagar located? (1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Maharashtra (3) Gujarat (4) Andhra Pradesh (5) Telangana 51. Which multilateral financial institution has committed a record U.S.$4.6 billion in sovereign lending to India in 2021? (1) NDB (2) ADB (3) AIIB (4) World Bank (5) EIB 52. In which state was the ‘Statue of Equality’ recently unveiled by PM Narendra Modi? (1) Karnataka (2) Telangana (3) Maharashtra (4) Odisha (5) Kerala 53. According to Union Budget 2022–23, which is the major head for ‘Rupee Comes From’? (1) Borrowings and Other Liabilities (2) GST (3) Corporation Tax (4) Income Tax (5) Union Excise Duties 54. According to Union Budget 2022–23, which is the major head for ‘Rupee Goes To’? (1) States’ Share of Taxes And Duties (2) Interest Payments (3) Central Sector Schemes (4) Finance Commission and Other Transfer (5) Centrally Sponsored Schemes 55. Which Union Ministry has received the highest allocation in Budget 2022–23? (1) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution (2) Ministry of Defence (3) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (4) Ministry of Home Affairs (5) Ministry of Railway 56. The Union Budget 2022–23 has made a provision to take up ______ River Link Project. (1) Damanganga – Pinjal (2) Godavari – Krishna (3) Ken – Betwa (4) Krishna – Pennar (5) Pennar – Cauvery

Improve your GA 57. Which of the following initiative(s) is/are proposed in the Union Budget 2022–23? (1) Sovereign Green Bonds for green infrastructure (2) Digital Rupee using blockchain technology (3) States will be allowed a fiscal deficit of four percent of GSDP (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 2 and 3 58. In the context of Economic Survey 2021–22 presented by the Union Minister for Finance and Corporate Affairs, which of the following statement(s) is/are true? (1) Indian economy is estimated to grow by 9.2 percent in real terms in 2021–22. (2) GDP is projected to grow by 8–8.5 percent in real terms in 2022–23. (3) Services sector is expected to grow by 8.2 percent in 2021–22. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 2 59. Which provision(s) relating to direct taxes is/are incorporated in Union Budget 2022–23? (1) Updated return can be filed on payment of additional tax within two years. (2) Minimum alternate tax (MAT) reduced for cooperative societies to 15%. (3) The investment limit under Section 80C is increased. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 2 60. Which of the following provision(s) about agriculture is/ are incorporated in the Union Budget 2022–23? (1) ₹2.37 lakh crore direct payment to 1.63 crore farmers for procurement of paddy and wheat (2) Promotion of chemical–free natural farming (3) 100% crop insurance coverage on self–declaration of loss by farmers (4) 1 and 2 (5) 1, 2 and 3 61. India exported millets worth U.S.$26.97 million in 2020–21. Which country is India’s largest export destination for millets? (1) UAE (2) Saudi Arabia (3) Nepal (4) U.S. (5) Russia 62. International Day of Women and Girls in Science is celebrated on ______ every year. (1) 11th February (2) 10th February (3) 12th February (4) 9th February (5) 13th February

63. Which is the first Indian entity to raise money through Formosa Bond to the tune of U.S.$300 million? (1) RIL (2) SBI (3) Talace (4) Airtel (5) CIL 64. Identify the former SBI Chairman and the present CEO of Salesforce India. (Clue: picture below)



(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Rajnish Kumar Pratip Chaudhuri Arundhati Bhattacharya Om Prakash Bhatt None of these

65. Which of the following cities of India and Bangladesh shared best practices during a recent solid waste management dialogue? (a) Indore (b) Dhaka North (c) Bhopal (d) Madurai (e) Barishal

(1) a, b (3) d, b (5) a, e

(2) c, b (4) a, c, b

66. Which organization has partnered with NITI Aayog and AIM in SAMRIDH initiative that aims at affordable and quality healthcare? (1) USIBC (2) USAID (3) Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation (4) CRY (5) None of these 67. Recently VRR auction under LAF for an amount of ₹75,000 crore was conducted. Identify the correct statement(s) in this regard. (1) VRR Auction stands for Variable Rate Repo Auction. (2) LAF stands for Liquidity Adjustment Facility. (3) The auction was conducted by the Reserve Bank of India. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 2

April 2022

19

Improve your GA 68. CSIR and Institut Pasteur signed an MoU towards advancement in human health. Institut Pasteur is based in (1) Belgium. (2) France. (3) U.S. (4) Canada. (5) UK. 69. Which country has agreed to extend technical assistance to India to convert 150 villages into Villages of Excellence? (1) Japan (2) South Korea (3) Israel (4) Germany (5) Netherlands 70. Identify the Indian documentary that has been nominated at the 94th Academy Awards. (1) Writing With Fire (2) Flee (3) Attica (4) Summer of the Soul (5) Ascension 71. A Parliamentary Committee on MGNREGA has recommended an increase in guaranteed days of work from 100 to ______ days. (1) 125 (2) 130 (3) 175 (4) 150 (5) 160 72. As stated in the Economic Survey 2021–22, what is the position of India in terms of foreign exchange reserves holding as at end–November 2021? (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 8 (5) 10 73. The Central Government informed that ₹3.22 lakh crore was sanctioned under PMMY against target of ₹3.5 lakh crore in FY 2020–21. Identify the statement related to the scheme. (1) PMMY stands for Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana. (2) MUDRA stands for Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Limited. (3) 2% Interest Subvention is applicable to Shishu loans under PMMY. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 2 74.

______ has become the first UT to be integrated with National Single Window System. (1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (2) Jammu and Kashmir (3) Puducherry (4) Ladakh (5) Chandigarh

20 April 2022

75. In which state have scientists discovered the White Cheeked Macaque? (1) Kerala (2) Mizoram (3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Sikkim (5) Chhattisgarh 76. The India–ASEAN High Level Conference on Renewable Energy took place in February 2022. Which country is the present Chair of ASEAN? (1) Cambodia (2) Indonesia (3) Myanmar (4) Singapore (5) Laos 77. The Union Government has launched Intensified Mission Indradhanush 4.0. Under this programme, the government will undertake (1) immunization. (2) slum development. (3) infusion of capital in public sector banks. (4) youth skill development. (5) none of these. 78. According to the latest information furnished by the Department of Space, which statement(s) with respect to the launching of satellites by ISRO is/are true? (1) ISRO launched 129 satellites of Indian origin since 1975. (2) ISRO launched 342 foreign satellites belonging to 36 countries since 1975. (3) At present, India has a total of 53 operational satellites in space. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 3 79. The National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) is developing a manned submersible with a capacity to carry three human beings to 6000 m ocean depth. NIOT is in (1) Mumbai. (2) Kolkata. (3) Chennai. (4) Paradip. (5) Visakhapatnam. 80. In which place is one of the country’s two National Centres of Excellence in Carbon Capture and Utilization (NCOE–CCU) being established? (1) IIT Bombay (2) IIT Madras (3) IIT Delhi (4) IIT Kharagpur (5) IIT Kanpur

Improve your GA 81. What is the rank of India in the list for Leadership in Energy and Environment Design (LEED) 2021 of the U.S. Green Building Council (USGBC)? (1) 10 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 7 (5) 15 82. Atal Tunnel is recognized as the world’s longest highway tunnel above 10,000 feet by the World Book of Records. Which statement(s) relating to the tunnel is/are correct? (1) The tunnel is 9.02 km long. (2) The tunnel runs under the ‘Rohtang Pass’. (3) The tunnel is constructed on the Manali–Leh highway. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 3 83. INSAT–4B satellite is in the news. Identify the correct statement in this regard. (1) ISRO has successfully launched this communications satellite. (2) ISRO has successfully decommissioned the satellite. (3) ISRO has extended the life of the satellite by two more years. (4) The satellite has successfully been docked to the International Space Station (ISS). (5) None of these 84. The Reserve Bank of India has released the Monetary Policy Statement 2021–22 on 10 February 2022. Identify the correct decision(s) of Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). (1) Policy repo rate under LAF is kept unchanged at 4.0 percent. (2) Reverse repo rate under LAF is revised. (3) Bank Rate is now 4.25 percent. (4) 1, 2 and 3 (5) 1 and 3 85. The RBI has decided to increase the cap of e–RUPI Vouchers issued by the central government and state governments from ₹10,000 to ₹______ per voucher. (1) 25,000 (2) 50,000 (3) 1,00,000 (4) 75,000 (5) 80,000 86. Who among the following persons has taken over as the new African Union Chairperson? (1) Macky Sall, President of Senegal (2) Idriss Deby, President of Chad (3) Alpha Conde, President of Guinea (4) Uhuru Kenyatta, President of Kenya (5) Ellen Sirleaf Johnson, President of Liberia

April 2022

21

Improve your GA 87. UNESCO at One Ocean Summit requested its 193 member states to include ocean education in school curricula by 2025. The Summit, held on 10th February 2022, was hosted by (1) India. (2) France. (3) Portugal. (4) Spain. (5) Canada. 88. With the theme ‘Go Digital, Go Secure’, this year’s Financial Literacy Week (FLW) is observed between ______ February 2022. (1) 14–18 (2) 15–19 (3) 13–17 (4) 14–20 (5) 15–21 89. What is the increased limit (in (₹ crore) under the ‘Voluntary Retention Route for Investments by Foreign Portfolio Investors’, as decided by the Reserve Bank of India? (1) 3,00,000 (2) 2,50,000 (3) 2,75,000 (4) 3,25,000 (5) 2,25,000 90. According to Tom Tom Traffic Index 2021, which Indian city is the fifth most congested city in the world? (1) Delhi (2) Bengaluru (3) Mumbai (4) Pune (5) None of these 91. Which of the following organizations is setting up a Credit Derivatives Determinations Committee? (1) RBI (2) FIMMDA (3) SEBI (4) NPCI (5) IRDAI 92. Who among the following persons has been reappointed as the Executive Chairman of Tata Sons? (Clue: picture below)



22 April 2022

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

Ratan Tata N. Chandrasekaran Shantanu Narayen C. P. Gurnani Indra Nooyi

Improve your GA 93. ______ has recently become the 35th state/UT to implement One Nation One Ration Card (ONORA). (1) Telangana (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Chhattisgarh (4) Delhi (5) Puducherry 94. Which space agency has announced MUSE and Helioswarm missions? (1) NASA (2) ESA (3) ISRO (4) JAXA (5) Roscosmos 95. In which country is Power Grid Corporation of India Limited setting up a power transmission project in partnership with Africa50? (1) Tanzania (2) Kenya (3) Uganda (4) South Sudan (5) Sudan 96. Which of the following is the world’s largest ‘derivatives exchange’ in 2021 based on the statistics maintained by Futures Industry Association (FIA)? (1) NSE, India (2) BSE, India (3) Eurex Exchange, Germany (4) ICE Futures, U.S. (5) None of these

97. The Ministry of Coal has launched e–auction of 10 coal mines for commercial mining in five states. Two mines, Koilajan and Garampani, are in (1) Arunachal Pradesh. (2) Assam. (3) Jharkhand. (4) Maharashtra. (5) Odisha. 98. The Central Government has recently launched SMILE, a central sector scheme. Identify the statement(s) related to the scheme. (1) SMILE stands for ‘Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise’. (2) This is a welfare scheme for the transgender community and the people engaged in the act of begging. (3) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched the scheme. (4) 1 and 2 (5) 1, 2 and 3 99. Which of the following ASEAN countries has Riel as its currency? (1) Cambodia (2) Laos (3) Myanmar (4) Thailand (5) Vietnam 100. Which of the following organizations has revamped Advisory Committee on Investor Protection and Education Fund? (1) RBI (2) SEBI (3) FIMMDA (4) BSE (5) IDRBT

Answers below

For detailed explanation of Improve your GA, visit www.time4education.com/cac/gksol/april22

Key for Improve your GA - Pg. 14 1.

1

11. 2

21. 1

31. 1

41. 5

51. 2

61. 3

71. 4

81. 2

91. 2

2.

3

12. 1

22. 5

32. 3

42. 4

52. 2

62. 1

72. 3

82. 4

92. 2

3.

2

13. 3

23. 2

33. 2

43. 1

53. 1

63. 2

73. 4

83. 2

93. 3

4. 2

14. 2

24. 2

34. 3

44. 2

54. 2

64. 3

74. 2

84. 5

94. 1

5. 1

15. 1

25. 3

35. 5

45. 3

55. 2

65. 1

75. 3

85. 3

95. 2

6. 3

16. 5

26. 3

36. 5

46. 4

56. 3

66. 2

76. 1

86. 1

96. 1

7. 3

17. 2

27. 4

37. 4

47. 5

57. 4

67. 4

77. 1

87. 2

97. 2

8. 4

18. 1

28. 1

38. 3

48. 1

58. 4

68. 2

78. 4

88. 1

98. 5

9. 1

19. 5

29. 3

39. 1

49. 4

59. 5

69. 3

79. 3

89. 2

99. 1

10. 4

20. 3

30. 2

40 2

50. 1

60. 4

70. 1

80. 1

90. 3

100. 2

April 2022

23

Improve your GA

Geography for SSC CGLE Direction for questions 1 to 50: Select the correct alternative from the given choices. 1.

A narrow passage of water that connects two large bodies of water is called (1) Archipelago. (2) Strait . (3) Gulf. (4) Gorge.

2.

Which of the following pass connects Srinagar to Leh? (1) Zoji La Pass (2) Lipulekh Pass (3) Baralacha La pass (4) Banihal Pass

3.

Which crop is cultivated in Karewa formations found in Kashmir Himalayas? (1) Saffron (2) Apples (3) Cashew nut (4) Rice

4.

Which of the following separates Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal? (1) Eight Degree Channel (2) Nine Degree Channel (3) Ten Degree Channel (4) Indira Point

5.

Which of the following rivers flow through rift valleys? (1) Narmada (2) Damodar (3) Tapti (4) All the above

6.

Anamudi is the highest peak of (1) Western Ghats. (2) Eastern Ghats. (3) Aravalli Range. (4) Satpura Range.

7.

The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through (1) Rajasthan. (2) Gujarat. (3) Tripura. (4) Odisha.

8.

The Palk Strait is a strait between (1) Java and Sumatra. (2) India and Sri Lanka. (3) Malay Peninsula and Indonesian Peninsula. (4) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman.

9.

India and China are divided by (1) McMahon Line. (2) Durand Line. (3) Radcliffe Line. (4) 38th Parallel.

24 April 2022

10. In which part of India do the western disturbances cause sudden winter rain? (1) North-eastern India (2) North-western India (3) South-eastern India (4) South-western India 11. The Standard Meridian of India passes through (1) Uttar Pradesh. (2) Andhra Pradesh. (3) Odisha. (4) All the above 12. Which of the following statements best describe the Chota Nagpur Plateau? (1) It is a plateau in eastern India, which covers much of Jharkhand state as well as adjacent parts of Odisha, West Bengal, and Chhattisgarh. (2) It is a peninsular plateau located in central India that includes inland sections of the states of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Karnataka. (3) It is the north-eastern plateau, which is an extension of the main peninsular plateau. (4) None of these 13. Which of the following factors determine the climate of India? (a) Altitude (b) Distance from the Sea (c) Distribution of air pressure and winds on the surface of the earth. (1) a, b of above (2) a, c of above (3) b, c of above (4) a, b, c of above 14. Which of the following statements about the Brahmaputra is incorrect? (1) Brahmaputra is called Jamuna in Bangladesh. (2) Brahmaputra is called Yarlung Tsangpo in Myanmar. (3) Brahmaputra is called Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet. (4) Brahmaputra is called Dihang in Arunachal Pradesh. 15. The drainage pattern that resembles the branches of a tree root and is formed when the river channel follows the slope of the terrain is called (1) rectangular drainage pattern. (2) trellis drainage pattern. (3) dendritic drainage pattern. (4) radial drainage pattern.

Improve your GA 16. The Koyna Hydroelectric Project is in (1) Himachal Pradesh. (2) Maharashtra. (3) West Bengal. (4) Kerala. 17. Which river delta is called Granary of South India? (1) Krishna–Godavari (2) Mahanadi–Godavari (3) Kaveri–Krishna (4) Narmada–Tapti 18. Which India state has the longest coastline? (1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Gujarat (4) Kerala 19. Which of the following rivers flow from east to west? (1) Mahi (2) Kaveri (3) Krishna (4) Mahanadi 20. The world famous Silent Valley is in (1) Maharashtra. (2) Uttarakhand. (3) Kerala. (4) West Bengal. 21. Which type of soil has the characteristic of becoming sticky when wet and shrink when dried? (1) Regur Soil (2) Alluvial Soil (3) Laterite Soil (4) Peaty Soils 22. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding El Nino? (1) The atmospheric equivalent of El Nino is Southern Oscillation. (2) El Nino is a name given to the periodic development of a warm ocean current along the coast of Peru as a temporary replacement of the cold Peruvian current. (3) ‘El Nino’ is a Spanish word meaning ‘the child’. (4) World's largest fish catching Zone – Dogger Bank is formed at the place where EI Nino meets with the Peruvian current. 23. Which type of rivers has the following description: The rivers are perennial. These rivers receive water from rain as well as from melted snow from the high mountains. The rivers have long courses from their source to the sea. (1) Himalayan rivers (2) Peninsular Rivers (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these 24. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy? (1) Thermal (2) Hydel power (3) Tidal energy (4) Wind Power

25. Which of the following sectors accounts for most of the surface and ground water utilisation in India? (1) Industries (2) Agriculture (3) Domestic purpose (4) Thermal Power plants 26. Narora Nuclear Power Plant is in (1) Karnataka. (2) Rajasthan. (3) Uttar Pradesh. (4) Tamil Nadu. 27. In which of the following rocks are minerals deposited and accumulated in the strata? (1) Igneous rocks (2) Metamorphic rocks (3) Sedimentary rocks (4) Both (1) & (2) 28. Which mineral is found in rocks composed of calcium and magnesium carbonates? (1) Mica (2) Thorium (3) Dolomite (4) Bauxite 29. Which of the following settlements are found in plain areas or wide inter-montane valleys? (1) Circular (2) Rectangular (3) Linear (4) Cross shaped 30. Which of the following types of iron ore contains the highest content of iron? (1) Hematite (2) Magnetite (3) Limonite (4) Siderite 31. Creep, which can occur on moderately steep, soil covered slopes, is included in which of the following categories? (1) Landslides (2) Rapid flow mass movements (3) Slow flow mass movements (4) Subsidence 32. The study of soils in their natural environment is called (1) Pedology. (2) Edaphology. (3) Geomorphology. (4) Cartography. 33. Which of the following geomorphic processes is a gradational process? (1) Erosion (2) Deposition (3) Chemical weathering (4) Volcanism 34. From which of the following ores is aluminium obtained? (1) Copper (2) Manganese (3) Bauxite (4) Mica April 2022

25

Improve your GA 35. Which of the following types of forests is called monsoon forests? (1) Tropical evergreen forests (2) Tropical deciduous forests (3) Mangrove forests (4) Mountain vegetation 36. ______ is the seasonal movement of people with their livestock between fixed summer and winter pastures. (1) Transhumance (2) Subsistence farming (3) Commercial farming (4) None of these 37.

Which of the following is incorrectly matched? (1) Farakka Barage Project – River Ganga (2) Hirakud Project – River Mahanadi (3) Idukki Project – River Periyar (4) Nagarjuna Sagar Project – River Godavari



(3) Tropical evergreen forests (4) Tropical deciduous forests

43.

The National Waterway 2 connects (1) Allahabad and Haldia. (2) Sadiya and Dubri. (3) Kottapuram and Kollam. (4) Kakinada and Chennai.

44.

Which of the following seaports is not on the west coast? (1) Tuticorn (2) Mormugao (3) Kandla (4) Cochin

45. The East–West Road Corridor of India connects (1) Silchar and Porbandar . (2) Mumbai and Kolkata. (3) Pune and Bhubaneshwar. (4) Surat and Guwahati.

46. 38. In which type of forests mahogany, ebony and rosewood trees are found? (1) Mountain vegetation (2) Mangrove forests

39. Which of the following is correctly matched? (1) Kolleru Lake – Tamil Nadu (2) Wular Lake – Jammu and Kashmir (3) Loktak Lake – Meghalaya (4) Pichola Lake – Gujarat 40. The slash and burn-type of farming is called ______ in north eastern India. (1) Milpa (2) Roca (3) Kuruwa (4) Jhumming 41. Which of the following best describes plantation agriculture? (1) A system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area. (2) Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family. (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these 42. Which of the following is India's southernmost hill range? (1) Nilgiri Hills (2) Cardamom hills (3) Shevroy hills (4) Seshachalam hills

26 April 2022

The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the (1) Himachal. (2) Shiwalik. (3) Purvanchal. (4) Himadri.

47. Majuli, which is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world, is in the river (1) Ganga. (2) Beas. (3) Brahmaputra. (4) Sutlej. 48. Which of the following is the region of northern plains of India that consists of wet, swampy and marshy land? (1) Bhabar (2) Khadar (3) Terai (4) Mangroves 49.

The southern stretch of the west coast of India is called (1) Malabar coast. (2) Konkan coast. (3) Utkal coast. (4) Coromandel coast.

50.

Barren Island, India’s only active volcano, is in (1) Purvanchal Range. (2) Andaman and Nicobar Islands. (3) Lakshadweep Islands. (4) Pamban Island. CAC

Answers on pg. 9

Persons/Places in News

F

rank-Walter Steinmeier (pictured) has been elected for a second term as Germany’s President. The incumbent won 77% support  at the Bundesversammlung (Federal Convention) in Berlin. The session consisted of the members of Germany’s Bundestag, or lower house of parliament, along with an equal number of delegates chosen by the country’s 16 states. President Steinmeier, 66, a Social Democrat who served two stints as former Chancellor Angela Merkel's foreign minister and before was chief of staff to former Chancellor Gerhard Schröder, is well-liked among the German public.  The three other candidates were left-winger Gerhard Trabert, 65, who ran for the opposition Left Party, physicist Stefanie Gebauer, 41, who was nominated by a political group called the Free Voters, and Max Otte, 57, an archconservative economist chosen by the far-right party Alternative for Germany (AfD).

LLL

B

urkina Faso’s military government said it has restored the constitution a week after taking power and has appointed the coup’s leader as head of state for a transitional period. The 37-article document guarantees independence of the judiciary and presumption of innocence, as well as basic liberties spelled out in the constitution such as freedom of movement and freedom of speech. Under the “fundamental act”, it said, the military government – officially named the Patriotic Movement for Preservation and Restoration (MPSR) – “ensures the continuity of the state pending the establishment of transitional bodies”. The statement did not give a timeline for the transition period. It formally identified coup leader Lieutenant-Colonel PaulHenri Sandaogo Damiba as president of the MPSR. This role also encompasses “president of Burkina Faso, head of state (and) supreme leader of the armed forces”.

The move came shortly after the African Union (AU) suspended Burkina Faso for the takeover and diplomats from West Africa and the United Nations pressed demands for a return to civilian rule. The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) also suspended Burkina Faso from its ranks and warned of possible sanctions pending the outcome of meetings with the military government. On 24 January 2022, mutineering soldiers detained Kabore amid rising public anger at his failure to stem violence by armed groups ravaging the impoverished nation. They later released a handwritten letter in which he announced his resignation – a document that a member of his party said was authentic. The coup is the latest bout of turmoil to strike Burkina Faso, a landlocked state that has suffered chronic instability since gaining independence from France in 1960.

LLL

L

ieutenant General Manoj Pande (pictured) took over as the new Vice Chief of Indian Army from Lieutenant General Chandi Prasad Mohanty who superannuated after four decades. Lt Gen. Pande comes to Army headquarters after commanding the eastern command in Kolkata. The Eastern Command is responsible for guardian against China in the eastern sector in states like Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim. An alumnus of National Defence Academy, Pande was commissioned in December 1982 to the Corps of Engineers (The Bombay Sappers). The General Officer commanded an Engineer Regiment during Operation Parakram in the sensitive Pallanwala Sector along the Line of Control in Jammu and Kashmir. He is a graduate of Staff College, Camberley (United Kingdom), and attended the Higher Command (HC) and National Defence College (NDC) Courses.

LLL April 2022

27

CURRENT EVENT CHRONICLE Queen Elizabeth II (pictured) has become the first British monarch to reign for 70 years, heralding the start of her Platinum Jubilee year despite her retreat from public view. The sovereign’s recordbreaking reign as head of state began when she was aged 25. She has since become the one constant in an era of rapid social and political change, a figurehead of modern Britain and a living link to its post-war and imperial past. Only three monarchs in global history have reigned for more than 70 years. France’s Louis XIV reigned for 72 years, 110 days from 1643 to 1715. Thailand’s king Bhumibol Adulyadej was on the throne for 70 years and 126 days from 1946 to 2016. Johann II, prince of Liechtenstein, ruled for 70 years, 91 days from 1858 to 1929.

LLL

L

egendary singer Lata Mangeshkar (pictured) passed away at the age of 92. She was admitted to Mumbai’s Breach Candy Hospital on 8 January 2022 after she tested positive for Covid–19. The Bharat Ratna awardee was admitted to the hospital after being diagnosed with pneumonia and tested positive for the coronavirus disease in January. She was cremated with full state honours. The central government announced a two-day national mourning in her memory with the National Flag flying at half-mast Lata Mangeshkar, who was popularly known as the “Nightingale of India”, was a recipient of the country’s highest civilian honour, the Bharat Ratna. In her glorious career of over six decades, Lata Mangeshkar bagged several awards, including three National Film Awards, 15 Bengal Film Journalists’ Association Awards, four Filmfare Best Female Playback Awards, two Filmfare Special Awards, and Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award. She was also conferred by France its highest civilian award, the Officer of the Legion of Honour, in 2007. Besides this, she was a recipient of honorary doctorates from the Sangeet Natak

28 April 2022

Akademi in 1989, Indira Kala Sangeet Vishwavidyalaya, Khairagarh, and Shivaji University in Kolhapur. Lata Mangeshkar sang over 30,000 songs in different Indian languages. Her popular tracks include Bheegi Bheegi Raaton Mein, Tere Bina Zindagi Se, Tum Aa Gaye Ho Noor Aa Gaya, Kora Kagaz, Naina Barse Rim Jhim, Tu Jahan Jahan Chalega,  Inhi Logon Ne,  Lag Ja Gale Se Phir, Dekha Ek Khwab, and Tere Liye.

I

LLL

ndia has agreed to provide a grant to Sri Lanka to implement a ‘Unitary Digital Identity framework’, apparently modelled on the Aadhaar card. The Government of Sri Lanka has decided to speed up the implementation of a Unitary Digital Identity framework in the country. The personal identity verification programme is a digital tool that can represent the identities of individuals in cyberspace, and the identification of individual identities that can be accurately verified in digital and physical environments by combining the two devices. The Government of India had previously agreed to provide a grant to implement the Unitary Digital Identity framework, after bilateral talks between the Sri Lankan President Gotabaya Rajapaksa and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2019. The decision comes amid substantive economic assistance from India – totalling $1.4 billion since the beginning of this year – to Sri Lanka, to help the island nation cope with its dollar crunch, and import food, medicines, and fuel amid frequent shortages. While India has confirmed support for Sri Lanka’s effort to transition to a digital identity system, there is no official information yet on the value of the grant, and whether it would include technological support or training. 

LLL

A

tal Tunnel has officially been certified by the World Book of Records as the ‘World’s Longest Highway Tunnel above 10,000 Feet’. Lt Gen. Rajeev Chaudhry, Director General of Border Roads Organisation (DGBR), received the award for the stupendous achievement of the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) in constructing this engineering marvel connecting Manali to the Lahaul–Spiti Valley.

CURRENT EVENT CHRONICLE The World Book of Records UK is an organisation that catalogues and verifies extraordinary records across the world with authentic certification. Atal Tunnel was opened by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in October 2020. The 9.02 km long, strategically significant Atal Tunnel, that runs under the ‘Rohtang Pass’ was constructed on the Manali–Leh Highway under the challenging conditions of freezing temperatures in extremely difficult terrain. Construction of this tunnel has reduced the distance on Manali–Sarchu road by 46 km and travel time by four to five hours, providing all-weather connectivity on the Manali–Leh axis.

LLL

P

raveen Kumar Sobti (pictured), popular for essaying the role of Bheem in B. R. Chopra’s ‘Mahabharat’, has died. He became a household name following his success in television but he was more than just an actor. A former BSF soldier, he won four medals in discus throw at the Asian Games, including two gold medals, at Bangkok

in 1966 and 1970 (the Asian Games of 1966 & 1970 were held at Bangkok), a silver medal in hammer throw at the 1966 Commonwealth Games in Kingston, and competed in two Olympics (Mexico in 1968 and Munich 1972). He featured in more than 50 movies like ‘Yudh’, ‘Adhikar’, ‘Hukumat’, ‘Shahenshah’, ‘Ghayal’, and ‘Aaj Ka Arjun’.

LLL

N

ITI Aayog has announced the five most improved aspirational districts in the Agriculture and Water Resources sector for December 2021. Malkangiri in Odisha tops the list. It is followed by Chhatarpur in Madhya Pradesh and Baramulla in Jammu and Kashmir. Ramgarh in Jharkhand and Begusarai in Bihar also feature in the list. This is as per NITI Aayog’s Delta Rankings. Launched in January 2018, the Aspirational Districts Programme aims to transform 112 most under-developed districts quickly and effectively across the country. The broad contours of the programme are Convergence (of Central & State Schemes), Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors), and Competition among districts through monthly delta ranking, all driven by a mass movement.

Quick Fact World Wetlands Day, celebrated annually on 2 February, aims to raise global awareness about the vital role of wetlands for people and planet. This day also marks the date of the adoption of the Convention on Wetlands on 2 February 1971, in the Iranian city of Ramsar. ‘A Call to Take Action for Wetlands’ is the focus of this year’s campaign. It is an appeal to invest financial, human and political capital to save the world’s wetlands from disappearing and to restore those we have degraded. 2 February 2022 is the first year that World Wetlands Day will be observed as a United Nations international day, following its adoption by the General Assembly on 30 August 2021 in a resolution co-sponsored by 75 member states. India has 46 Ramsar sites, including Chilika Lake in Odisha, Keoladeo National Park in Rajasthan, Harike Lake in Punjab, Loktak Lake in Manipur, and Wular Lake in Jammu and Kashmir. April 2022

29

CURRENT EVENT CHRONICLE With states as the main drivers, this programme focuses on the strength of each district, identifying low-hanging fruits for immediate improvement and measuring progress by ranking districts monthly. The ranking is based on the incremental progress made across 49 Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) under 5 broad socio-economic themes – Health & Nutrition, Education, Agriculture & Water Resources, Financial Inclusion & Skill Development, and Infrastructure. The deltaranking of Aspirational Districts and the performance of all districts is available on the Champions of Change Dashboard. NITI Aayog works closely with the respective line Ministries and various development partners to fast-track progress at the district level. Various programmes such as Saksham Bitiyan Abhiyan, Anemia Mukt Bharat, and Surakshit Hum Surakshit Tum, are some of the flagship initiatives that have been taken up by NITI Aayog in this regard. The districts are also

encouraged to develop and replicate best practices that drive improvement across the socio-economic themes. Another focus of the programme is to further dive into the progress at the block-level within each district. The districts are encouraged to monitor the progress of the blocks that lead to the overall improvement of the district. The Aspirational Districts Programme essentially is aimed at localizing Sustainable Development Goals, leading to the progress of the nation.

LLL

T

wo National Centres of Excellence in Carbon Capture and Utilization are being established in India. The two Centres, namely the National Centre of Excellence in Carbon Capture and Utilization (NCoE-CCU) at Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Bombay, and the National

Quick Fact The Indian Coast Guard Day is commemorated every year on 1 February. This year, the ICG is celebrating its 46th Raising Day. India has the fourth-largest Coast Guard. It has evolved into a stronger group with 158 ships and 70 aircraft in its inventory, and by 2025, it is expected to reach its aim of 200 surface units and 80 aircraft. The Indian Coast Guard’s motto is ‘Vayam Rakshamah’, meaning ‘We Protect’. The ICG ensures the safety and security of man-made islands, offshore ports, other facilities. They are dedicated to preserving and assisting fishermen mariners. The Coast Guard also assists the Department of Customs and other enforcement agencies in anti-smuggling efforts. They oversee enforcing the in both territorial and international waterways.

and and law law

The Indian Coast Guard Act, 1978, legally established the ICG, or Indian Coast Guard, on 18 August 1978. On 1 February 1977, the interim ICG was founded to combat illegal trafficking in coastal areas. The Indian Navy suggested the formation of this force to provide non-military marine services to the country. The Indian Coast Guard’s purpose is to ensure offshore security, maritime safety, and coastal security. It's also in charge of safeguarding India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). 30 April 2022

CURRENT EVENT CHRONICLE Centre in Carbon Capture and Utilization (NCCCU) at Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research (JNCASR), Bengaluru,  are being set up with support from the  Department of Science & Technology, Government of India.

The NCCCU at JNCASR, Bengaluru, will aim to develop and

These CoEs will facilitate capturing & mapping of current R&D and innovation activities in the domain and develop networks of researchers, industries and stakeholders with coordination and synergy between partnering groups and organizations. The Centres will act as multi-disciplinary,

work on reaching technology readiness level on par with the

long-term research, design development, collaborative and capacity-building hubs for state-of-the-art research and application-oriented initiatives in the field of CCU.

The Centres will help bring together the country’s collective

The NCoE-CCU at IIT Bombay will define milestones and spearhead science and technology initiatives for industryoriented CCU innovation in India, alongside developing novel methodologies for improving the technology readiness levels in CCU. It will accelerate the R&D efforts in methods of carbon capture and utilization. The centre will also work on the conversion of captured carbon dioxide to chemicals, CO2 transport, compression and utilization, as well as on enhanced hydrocarbon recovery as co-benefit pathways. The NCoE-CCU will also develop and demonstrate efficient CO2 capture from representative flue gas from the effluents of power plant and biogas plant.

also keep watch on international trends and suggest possible

demonstrate carbon capture and conversion by developing relevant materials and methodologies. These processes will be scaled up to pilot scale mode to produce hydrocarbons, olefines and other value-added chemicals and fuels. It will also commercial requirement at the industry level. The centre will promote the CCU research, provide training and consultancy and translate its research excellence into solutions with global economic and social impact. strength and assist in the development of an appropriate and feasible R&D and innovation roadmap. The Centres will collaborative endeavours. Under the strict climatic regime, it is vital to identify and adopt a right balance of portfolio of emission curtailment technologies. Carbon Capture and Utilization (CCU) is among one such key pathways to reduce emissions while continuing to develop sustainably at an unprecedented pace. CCU aligns with five of the seventeen sustainable development goals (SDGs), namely, climate action; clean energy, industry, innovation, and infrastructure; responsible consumption and production; and partnerships to achieve the goals.

Quick Fact The World Pulses Day is celebrated on 10 February every year. Pulses, also known as legumes, are the edible seeds of leguminous plants cultivated for food. Dried beans, lentils, and peas are the most known and consumed types of pulses. The UN General Assembly in 2019 decided to dedicate a day to Pulses to increase awareness and access to pulses globally known as World Pulses Day. On World Pulses Day, people make efforts in creating awareness about the importance of Pulses in sustainable food production. Donations of pulses are made to provide it to the people it is not easily accessible. The theme of the World Pulses Day 2022 is ‘Pulses to empower youth in achieving sustainable agrifood systems’. April 2022

31

CURRENT EVENT CHRONICLE Democracy Index 2021 (published by The Economist) BRICS NATIONS

TOP FIVE Rank

Country

Country

Rank

1

Norway

Brazil

47

2

New Zealand

Russia

124

3

Finland

India

46

4

Sweden

China

148

5

Iceland

South Africa

44

BOTTOM FIVE Rank

Country

167 (last)

Afghanistan

166

Myanmar

165

North Korea

164

Democratic Republic of Congo Syria & Central African 162 (joint) Republic

Leaders of BRICS Nations Brazil Russia India China South Africa

President Jair Bolsonaro President Vladimir Putin Prime Minister Narendra Modi President Xi Jinping President Cyril Ramaphosa

Quick Fact Under Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY), 1.27 crore (1,27,68,620) electricity service connections (installation cost funded by scheme) were provided to below poverty line (BPL) households. The Narendra Modi Government launched DDUGJY in December 2014 for various rural electrification works. As reported by the states, all the inhabited unelectrified census villages stand electrified on 28th April 2018 in the country. Under DDUGJY, 18,374 inhabited unelectrified census villages were reported to be electrified from 2014–15 to April 2018. The two ministries of (a) Power and (b) New and Renewable Energy are headed by Raj Kumar Singh. 32 April 2022

CURRENT EVENT CHRONICLE

Sport TENNIS Rio Open (ATP), Rio de Janeiro Singles Winner: Félix Auger-Aliassime (Canada) Runner-up: Stefanos Tsitsipas (Greece) Doubles Winners: Robin Haase & Matwé Middelkoop (both of The Netherlands) Runners-up: Lloyd Harris (South Africa) & Tim Pütz (Germany)

EEE

Felix Auger-Aliassime

Rotterdam Open (ATP), Rotterdam Singles Winner: Carlos Alcaraz (Spain) Runner-up: Diego Schwartzman (Argentina) Doubles Winners: Fabio Fognini & Simone Bolelli (both of Italy) Runners-up: Bruno Soares (Brazil) & Jamie Murray (UK)

Carlos Alcaraz

EEE

Qatar Open (ATP), Doha Singles Winner: Roberto Bautista Agut (Spain) Runner-up: Nikoloz Basilashvili (Georgia) Doubles Winners: Neal Skupski & Wesley Koolhof (both of UK) Runners-up: Denis Shapovalov (Canada) & Rohan Bopanna (India)

EEE

Roberto Bautista Agut April 2022

33

CURRENT EVENT CHRONICLE Dubai Tennis Championship (WTA), Dubai Singles Winner: Jeļena Ostapenko (Latvia) Runner-up: Veronika Kudermetova (Russia) Doubles Winners: Elise Mertens (Belgium) & Veronika Kudermetova (Russia) Runners-up: Jeļena Ostapenko (Latvia) & Lyudmyla Kichenok (Ukraine) EEE

Jelena Ostapenko

St Petersburg Ladies’ Trophy (WTA), St Petersburg Singles Winner: Anett Kontaveit (Estonia) Runner-up: Maria Sakkari (Greece) Doubles Winners: Anna Kalinskaya & Caty McNally (Russia) Runners-up: Alicja Rosolska (Poland) & Erin Routliffe (New Zealand) EEE

CRICKET

Anett Kontaveit

West Indies in India ODI Series Result: India won the three-match series 3–0. Player of the Series: Prasidh Krishna (India) T20 Series Result: India blanked West Indies to win the three-match series 3–0. Player of the Series: Surya Kumar Yadav (India)

Do you know? The 2026 Winter Olympic Games will be hosted by Milano–Cortina in Italy. The 2024 Summer Olympic Games will be hosted by Paris (France) while the American city of Los Angeles will play host to the 2028 SOG. 34 April 2022

CURRENT EVENT CHRONICLE

2022 Winter

Olympic Games, Beijing Host City:

Beijing

Motto:

Together for a Shared Future

Nations:

91

Athletes:

2871

Events:

109 in 7 sports

Cauldron lit by: Dinigeer Yilamujiang (China) Mascot:

Bing Dwen Dwen

Description of Mascot: In Mandarin Chinese (the official dialect of China), ‘Bing’ has several meanings, though the most common is ice. The word also symbolises purity and strength, while ‘Dwen Dwen’ means robust and lively, and represents children. The mascot embodies the strength and willpower of athletes and will help to promote the Olympic spirit. The mascot was created by Cao Xue (China).

TOP TEN MEDAL TOPPERS Rank

Country

Gold

Silver

Bronze

Total

1

Norway

16

8

13

37

2

Germany

12

10

5

27

3

China

9

4

2

15

4

United States

8

10

7

25

5

Sweden

8

5

5

18

6

Netherlands

8

5

4

17

7

Austria

7

7

4

18

8

Switzerland

7

2

5

14

9

ROC*

6

12

14

32

10

France

5

7

2

14

* Russian Olympic Committee

CAC

April 2022

35

Mock TEST PAPER

SSC CGLE (Tier-I) Instructions: This paper consists of 100 objective type questions in four test areas - General Intelligence and Reasoning, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude and English Comprehension. The duration of the paper is 1 hour. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-fourth of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

TEST–I: General Intelligence and Reasoning Direction for questions 1 to 3: Select the related word/letters/ number from the given alternatives.

8.

1.

2:8::12: ? (1) 98 (3) 84



2.

Intercept: Stop:: Interpret:? (1) Encourage (2) Explain (3) Confuse (4) Obstruct

3.

BE: DJ::CH: ? (1) EV (3) FP

(2) 108 (4) 50

(2) EX (4) GL

Direction for questions 4 to 6: Find out the odd word/letters/ number from the given alternatives. 4.

(1) 456 (3) 192

(2) 512 (4) 264

5.

(1) Parrot (3) Dove

(2) Pigeon (4) Bat

6.

(1) FU (3) IT

(2) EV (4) MN

Direction for questions 7 to 25: Select the correct alternative from the given choices. 7. Arrange the following words in the dictionary order. 1. Funatic 2. Funeral 3. Funaki 4. Figaro

(1) 4, 1, 2, 3 (3) 4, 3, 1, 2

36 April 2022

(2) 3, 1, 2, 4 (4) 1, 2, 3, 4

9.



A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series: BAD, CEF, DIG, FOH, ? (1) GNJ (2) GUJ (3) FUG (4) GPK A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series. 5, 11, 36, 185, 1302, ? (1) 14331 (2) 16442 (3) 11727 (4) 15602

10. Twenty-four persons were seated in a row. Seetha sits in the fifth position from the left end and Sparsha sits in the sixth position from the right end. One person named Harsha sits exactly between Seetha and Sparsha. What is the position of Harsha in the row from the right end? (1) 8th (2) 12th th (3) 13 (4) 18th 11. There were five persons namely A, B, C, D, and E. A is taller than B. D is shorter than C but taller than B. E is the second tallest and he is taller than C. Who is the third tallest person? (1) A (2) B (3) D (4) C 12. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word(using each letter not more than the number of times it appears in the word): CONSULTATION. (1) NATION (2) LOCUS (3) STATUS (4) CAUTION

MOCK TEST PAPER

SSC CGLE (Tier-I)

13. In a certain code language, if the word POWERS is coded as LKVDHI and FAMOUS is coded as ZULNHF, how is the word CAREER coded in that language? (1) ZXVVII (2) ZXVIIV (3) XZIVVI (4) YZJUUJ

19. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

14. Which of the following interchanges of signs would make the below given equation correct? 5 + 14 – 192 ÷ 12 × 16 = 60 (1) –, ÷ (2) +, × (3) =, – (4) ÷, × 15. If 3 # 5 = 118, 7 # 2 = –79, find the value of 6 # 2. (1) –28 (2) –34 (3) 64 (4) 36 16. Find the missing number. 6 9 5 8

2 7 1 ?

1 2 2 1

(1) 42 (3) 9

6 9 5 2 (2) 5 (4) 12

(1) 17 (3) 14

(2) 12 (4) 15

20. There are 64 students in a class out of which 44 students passed in chemistry, 18 students passed in mathematics and chemistry and 6 students did not pass in any of the two subjects. How many students passed in mathematics? (1) 26 (2) 58 (3) 32 (4) 14

17. A started walking towards the east and travelled a certain distance and took his right and walked a certain distance and took his left and walked a certain distance and then he took right and walked a certain distance and then finally took his left and walked a certain distance to reach his house. In which direction is his house situated from his initial position? (1) North-West (2) South-East (3) North (4) South

21. Which Answer Figure will complete the pattern in the Question Figure?

18. Two statements followed by two conclusions I and II are given. You must consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions if any, follow from the given statements.







Statements: All rabbits are peacocks. Some peacocks are hens. Conclusions: I. Some hens are rabbits. II. All hens are peacocks.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Only conclusion I follows. Only conclusion II follows. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

Question Figure:

Answer Figures:

(1) (1)

(2) (2)





(3) (3)

(4)(4)

April 2022

37

MOCK TEST PAPER

SSC CGLE (Tier-I)

22. From the Given Answer figures, select the one in which the Question Figure is hidden/embedded.



Answer Figures:





(1)

(2)





(3)

(4)

Question Figure:

Answer Figures:





(1)

(2)

(3) (4) 23. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the Question Figures. From the given Answer Figures, indicate how it will appear when unfolded.

Question Figures:

25. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by the two classes of letters as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and those of matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., K can be represented by 02, 43, etc., and L can be represented by 86, 34, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘HORSE’.

MATRIX I



Answer Figures:

0

1

2

3

4

0

R

J

K

D

R

1

K

M

F

Y

O

2

H

W

S

Q

E

3

D

S

E

B

L

4

Z

C

R

K

A

MATRIX II

(1)

(2)

(3)



Question Figure:



38 April 2022

5

6

7

8

9

5

I

F

E

C

R

6

E

M

H

B

S

7

J

A

P

O

Z

8

S

L

K

E

L

9

V

O

W

P

Q

(4)

24. If a mirror is placed on a line CQ, which of the Answer Figures is the right image of the Question Figure?



(1) (2) (3) (4)

20, 14, 04, 69, 75 20, 78, 00, 65, 31 67, 96, 42, 85, 88 20, 14, 34, 69, 57

MOCK TEST PAPER

SSC CGLE (Tier-I)

TEST–II: GENERAL AWARENESS Directions for questions 26 to 50: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

33. On which of the following planets does the Sun rise in

26. Which of the following devices is used as an oscillator? (1) Diode (2) Register (3) Transistor (4) Transformer



(1) Mercury

(2) Venus



(3) Mars

(4) Saturn

27.

What is the literal meaning of the term ‘Mandamus’? (1) By what authority (2) To have the body of (3) We command (4) Certify

28. What is the accepted average calories per person per day requirement in India? (1) 2300 calories in rural areas and 2100 calories in urban areas (2) 2100 calories in rural areas and 2300 calories in urban areas (3) 2200 calories in rural areas and 2400 calories in urban areas (4) 2400 calories in rural areas and 2100 calories in urban areas

the west?

34. Which of the following, when dissolved in water, produces a hissing sound?

(1) POP

(2) Mortar



(3) Limestone

(4) Quicklime

35. ‘Ring Fence’ policy is associated with

(1) Robert Clive.

(2) Warren Hastings.



(3) Lord Rippon.

(4) Dalhousie.

36. Parsec is a unit of

(1) distance.

(2) time.

(3) mass.

(4) speed.

37. Which of the following countries is not part of Brahmaputra river basin system?

(1) India

(2) China



(3) Myanmar

(4) Bangladesh

29. National Productivity Day is observed on ______ in India every year. (1) February 13 (2) February 14 (3) February 15 (4) February 12

38. Responsible Government was the key aspect of

(1) 1919 Indian Councils Act.



(2) 1909 Indian Councils Act.



(3) 1858 Government of India Act.

30. Who among the following is associated with the 1908 Bomb Attacks in Muzaffarpur? (1) Prafulla Chaki (2) Sukhdev (3) Ashfaqulla Khan (4) Ganesh Savarkar



(4) 1861 Indian Councils Act.

31. Which of the following books/plays narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya to power? (1) Indica (2) Rajatarangini (3) Mudrarakshasa (4) Arthasastra

40. The President of Kazakhstan, Kassym-Jomart Tokayev,

32.

A Buddhist vihara is a place for (1) studying Buddhist scriptures. (2) monastery. (3) storing the ashes of Buddhists. (4) none of the above.

39. How many players are there in a Basketball team?

(1) 5

(2) 6

(3) 7

(4) 8

recently declared a nationwide state of emergency. The capital of Kazakhstan is

(1) Kabul.

(2) Tashkent.



(3) Istanbul.

(4) Nur-Sultan.

41. Playa lakes are found near

(1) perennial rivers.



(2) volcanoes.



(3) delta region.



(4) deserts.

April 2022

39

MOCK TEST PAPER

SSC CGLE (Tier-I) 42. Which Governor General of India introduced regional languages in Indian courts? (1) Warren Hastings (2) Minto (3) Charles Metcalfe (4) William Bentinck 43. Which of the following writs is called bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention? (1) Mandamus (2) Prohibition (3) Quo Warranto (4) Habeas Corpus 44.

What is transhumance? (1) Commuting (2) Diurnal migration (3) Seasonal migration (4) Permanent migration

45. Select the odd one out with respect to the type of root system. (1) Carrot (2) Maize (3) Wheat (4) Bamboo 46. In which year did the Montreal Protocol come into force? (1) 1989 (2) 1991 (3) 1998 (4) 2005 47. Which city is called ‘the Gateway to the West of Medieval India’ during the medieval age? (1) Goa (2) Agra (3) Lahore (4) Surat 48. Who among the following is the first to translate Bhagavad Gita into English? (1) William Jones (2) Max Muller (3) Arthur L. Basham

(4) Charles Wilkins

49. Which of the following became the first woman of Indian-origin to trek solo to the South Pole? (1) Premlata Agrawal (2) Malavath Purna (3) Shivangi Pathak

(4) Harpreet Chandi

50. The cell membrane is mostly ______ in chemical nature. (1) Protein (2) Lipid (3) Lipoprotein (4) Glycolipid

40 April 2022

MOCK TEST PAPER

SSC CGLE (Tier-I)

TEST–III: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE Direction for questions 51 to 75: Select the correct alternative from the given choices. 51. cot6 θ – cosec6 θ + 3cosec2 θ cot2 θ = ____. (1) –1 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) –2 52. 1002 + 1032 + 1052 – 100 × 103 – 103 × 105 – 100 × 105 = _____. (1) 12 (2) 17 (3) 15 (4) 19 53. If ‘+’ means ‘−’, ‘−’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘×’, then the value of = _____. (1) (2) (3)

(4)

54. The ratio of the cost price of two articles P and Q is 5:8. If the cost price of P is increased by k% and that of Q is decreased by 10%, then the new prices of P and Q will be in the ratio 5:6. What is the value of k? (1) 10 (2) 30 (3) 15 (4) 20 55. The age of captain of a cricket team of 11 players is 25 years and that of the wicket-keeper is three years older than the captain. If these two players are excluded, the average of the remaining players will be one year less than the average age of the whole team. Find the average age of the whole team. (1) 25 years (2) 20 years (3) 22 years (4) 24 years 56. A rectangular park whose length is 70 m is surrounded by a path whose width is 10 m. The total cost of flooring the path is ₹2,88,000 at the rate of ₹120 per sq. m. Find the area of the park. (1) 2,100 m2 (2) 2,500 m2 2 (3) 1,600 m (4) 1,800 m2 57. Study the following table carefully to answer the question that follows. The table shows the number (in thousands) of mobile phones of five different models – P, Q, R, S, and T – produced from 2014 to 2020.





Year

P

Q

R

S

T

Total

2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020

18 28 16 21 32 45 50

12 22 25 30 12 35 25

32 36 14 26 26 58 30

28 30 35 19 40 42 35

20 24 30 44 20 60 40

110 140 120 140 130 240 180

In the year 2018, the production of which type of mobile phone constitutes exactly 20% of the total number of mobiles produced in the year? (1) P (2) T (3) S (4) R

58. What is the inverse ratio of compound ratio of a:b and a:c? (1) ac:b2 (2) bc:a2 2 (3) ab:c (4) abc:1 59. A sum of ₹500 amounts to ₹740 in three years on simple interest. If the rate of interest is decreased by 6% points and compounded annually, then the same sum amounts to P in two years on compound interest. Find the value of P. (1) ₹605 (2) ₹750 (3) ₹665 (4) ₹725 60. P, Q, and R can complete a piece of work in 10 days, 20 days, and 30 days, respectively. All the three of them completed the work by working in cyclic order starting with P and Q and R working in the same order. For how many days did P work? (1) 5 days (2) 5 days

(3) 6 days

(4) 4 days

61. If a + b + c + d = 4 and abc + bcd + cda + dab = 2, then find the value of abc (a + b + c) + bcd (b + c + d) + cda (c + d + a) + dab (d + a + b) + 4 abcd. (1) 10 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 12 62. The base radius of a cone C is 33 % more than its height. If the base radius of the cone is decreased by 25% and the height of the cone increased by 33 %, cone

April 2022

41

MOCK TEST PAPER

SSC CGLE (Tier-I)

D is formed. What is the percentage change in the lateral surface area of cone D when compared to that of cone C? (1) 25% less (2) 35% more (3) 20% less (4) 30% more

63.

68. XYZ is a right-angled triangle. YP is perpendicular to the hypotenuse XZ. If YZ = (1)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0



69. Study the following table carefully to answer the question that follows. The table shows the number (in thousands) of mobile phones of five different models – P, Q, R, S, and T produced from 2014 to 2020.



64. A certain number of articles are bought at the rate of 7 for 100 and an equal number at the rate of 6 for 100. If all the articles are sold at the rate of 5 for 100, then what is the gain or loss percentage in the entire transaction (correct to two the decimal places)? (1) 35.38% loss (2) 29.23% gain (3) 28.35% loss (4) 38.35% gain 65. Study the following table carefully to answer the question that follows. The table shows the number (in thousands) of mobile phones of five different models – P, Q, R, S, and T produced from 2014 to 2020. Year 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020



(2)

(3) (4) = _____.



, the value of ZP is ____.

P 18 28 16 21 32 45 50

Q 12 22 25 30 12 35 25

R 32 36 14 26 26 58 30

S 28 30 35 19 40 42 35

T 20 24 30 44 20 60 40

Total 110 140 120 140 130 240 180

For which type of mobile phones does the total number of mobile phones made in 2015 and 2016, constitutes exactly 25% of the total number of mobile phones produced in those two years? (1) P (2) T (3) S (4) R

66. If .

= 5, find the value of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



67. If N = 513, find the number of perfect squares which divides N completely. (1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 14

42 April 2022





Year

P

Q

R

S

T

Total

2014

18

12

32

28

20

110

2015

28

22

36

30

24

140

2016

16

25

14

35

30

120

2017

21

30

26

19

44

140

2018

32

12

26

40

20

130

2019

45

35

58

42

60

240

2020

50

25

30

35

40

180

Find the ratio of the total number of mobiles of model Q produced from 2017 to 2020 to that of the total number of mobiles of model S from 2014 to 2017. (1) 51:56 (2) 58:61 (3) 18:23 (4) 28:33

70. Two trains, A and B, travelling at 72 kmph and 108 kmph, respectively, can cross a pole in 10 seconds and 8 seconds, respectively. Find the time taken by train A to cross a tunnel whose length is twice the length of train B. (1) 34 seconds (2) 44 seconds (3) 18 seconds (4) 51 seconds 71. A cuboid of dimensions 9 × 8 × 4 is cut into n equal cuboids of equal dimensions 3 × 4 × 4, find the value of n. (1) 4 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 6 72. The perimeter of a right-angled triangle is 60 cm, and the area of the triangle is 120 cm2. The length of the hypotenuse is ____ cm. (1) 48 (2) 20 (3) 26 (4) 13 73.

= cot 3A, 0 < A < 60, find the value of A.



(1) 22 °

(2) 11 °



(3) 37 °

(4) 45°

MOCK TEST PAPER

SSC CGLE (Tier-I)

74. Study the following table carefully to answer the question that follows. The table shows the number (in thousands) of mobile phones of five different models – P, Q, R, S, and T produced from 2014 to 2020.



Year

P

Q

R

S

T

Total

2014

18

12

32

28

20

110

2015

28

22

36

30

24

140

2016

16

25

14

35

30

120

2017

21

30

26

19

44

140

2018

32

12

26

40

20

130

2019

45

35

58

42

60

240

2020

50

25

30

35

40

180

The percentage increase in the production of mobile phones from 2018 to 2020 is the least for model ______. (1) Q (2) R (3) S (4) P

75. If (a + b).

=

+

, find the value of



(1) 7

(2) 5



(3) 6

(4)

TEST–IV: ENGLISH COMPREHENSION Directions for questions 76 and 77: From the choices, select the most suitable synonym (a word which means the same) for the question word and mark it as the answer. 76. Caprice (1) Unction (3) Patriarchy 77.

(2) Prudence (4) Whim

Annihilation (1) Pandemonium (2) Extermination (3) Disarray (4) Determination

79.

(1) diladipated (2) dilapidated (3) dipadilated (4) dipalidated

Directions for questions 80 to 82: Each sentence has four parts. One of the parts has an error. Identify the erroneous part. If there is no error, then ‘4’ is the answer.

Directions for question 78: From the choices, identify the one which is opposite in meaning (antonym) to the question word and mark it as your answer. 78. Cower (1) Challenge (3) Smother

Directions for question 79: From the choices provided, pick the correctly spelt-word.

(2) Cringe (4) Blush

80. I’d like/you to/listen this./No error (1) (2) (3) (4) 81. Let us/ask him/to explain us his decision./No error (1) (2) (3) (4) 82. All good schools/insist that students/to obey rules./No error (1) (2) (3) (4)

April 2022

43

MOCK TEST PAPER Directions for questions 83 to 85: Fill in the blanks with suitable words. 83. I am open to the idea, ______ Abhishek is not receptive to it. (1) and (2) or (3) because (4) but 84. The brother and sister roamed the fields together ______ their childhood. (1) if (2) as (3) in (4) through 85. Many of us have experienced painful, out-of-control ______ with loved ones. (1) ambitions (2) rations (3) conflicts (4) parades Directions for questions 86 and 87: Select the word/phrase that best defines the given phrase/idiom. 86. To take something to heart (1) to be happy (2) to be upset (3) to be in love (4) to be regretful 87. To put one’s cards on the table (1) to be frisky (2) to be sportive (3) to be serious (4) to be honest Directions for questions 88 to 90: An expression is followed by four words. The expression carries the meaning of one of the words. Find the word.

SSC CGLE (Tier-I) 92. The game (started) before I reached the stadium. (1) will be starting (2) had started (3) has started (4) No improvement 93. Why (you went) out in that heavy rain without an umbrella or a raincoat? (1) do you went (2) you go (3) did you go (4) No improvement Directions for questions 94 and 95: A sentence/part of the sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose ‘No improvement’. 94. The economic refugees of the past have been replaced by well-placed people leaving India. (1) has been replaced (2) is been replaced (3) was been replaced (4) No improvement 95. India is no long the desperately poor country of the 1980s and 1990s. (1) no longing (2) no longest (3) no longer (4) No improvement Directions for questions 96 to 100: Choose the best answer .

Directions for questions 91 to 93: Improve the bracketed part of the sentence. If the sentence does not require any improvement, select ‘No improvement’.

Several natural processes lead to bioerosion. Bioerosion is a reduction in hard ocean substrates by various organisms such as mollusks, sponges, and fish. It can occur on coastlines, coral reefs, and ships. Mechanisms of bioerosion include biotic boring, drilling, rasping, and scraping. Bioerosion of coral reefs generates the fine and white coral sand characteristic of tropical islands. The coral is converted to sand by internal and external bioeroders. These forces can result in a great deal of erosion. Sea urchin’s erosion of calcium carbonate has been reported in some reefs at annual rates exceeding 20 kg/ m². Fish also erode coral while eating algae. Parrotfish cause a great deal of bioerosion with their well-developed jaw muscles, tooth armature, and a pharyngeal mill, which grinds up ingested material into sand-sized particles. The traces of bioerosion in the fossil record on shells and hard grounds date back well into the Precambrian. Macro bioerosion produces borings visible to the naked eye.

91.

96.

88. Having a quarrelsome character (1) haughty (2) propitious (3) belligerent (4) salubrious 89. The firing of several guns during a battle or as part of a ceremony (1) salver (2) salve (3) samba (4) salvo 90. Careful watching over possible wrongdoing (1) supervision (2) surveillance (3) servitude (4) reconnaissance

The Prime Minister (visits) China next week. (1) will have visited (2) has visited (3) will be visiting (4) No improvement

44 April 2022

The author mentions ‘Sea Urchin’ to (1) give an example of bioeroders. (2) explain the mechanisms of coral reef system. (3) contradict the idea given in the passage. (4) support the theory of natural processes.

MOCK TEST PAPER

SSC CGLE (Tier-I)

97. Mechanisms of bio-erosion include the following EXCEPT (1) Corroding. (2) Annexing. (3) Piercing. (4) Penetrating. 98.

What can be inferred about the occurrence of bioerosion? (1) Bioerosion is harmful to humans. (2) The reasons for bioerosion are numerous. (3) Biotic boring has more impact on the ocean floor. (4) Bioerosion can be controlled.

99.

What is the main idea of the passage? (1) Marine Biology and Coral Reefs (2) Bioerosion of Coral Reefs (3) Bioeroders of Coral Reefs (4) Tropical Islands

100. The process of bioerosion on corals is best defined as which of the following? (1) Coagulation (2) Abrasion (3) Assimilation (4) Clubbing

Quick Fact The 2021 FIFA Club World Cup was held in Abu Dhabi, the capital of the United Arab Emirates, in February 2022. The tournament is always played between the winners of the six continental confederations, as well as the host nation's league champions. The 2021 Club WC was won by Chelsea, an English professional club, which defeated Palmeiras, the Sao Paulo-based Brazilian club, in the final. Thiago Silva, of Chelsea and captain of the Brazilian national football team, was chosen the winner of the Golden Ball Award for being the best player of the tournament. April 2022

45

Mock TEST PAPER

Solutions for SSC CGLE (Tier-I) TEST–I: General Intelligence and Reasoning Solutions for questions 1 to 3:



Similarly, 12:



For the vowel → next vowel B, C, D, F, G : A, E, I, O, U : D, F, G, H, J : ∴ Next term in the series is GUJ. Choice (2)



∴ 12 is related to 98. Choice (1)

2.

Given analogy is intercept, which means stop. Similarly, interpret means explain. Choice (2)

9.

Given series is 5, 11, 36, 185, 1302, ______ Logic is as follows:

3.

Given analogy is

1.



Given analogy is 2:

⇒



X2



B E:D J



X2



X2



C H :F P X2

∴ CH is related to FP.

Choice (3)

Solutions for questions 4 to 6: 4.

Except 512, all the other numbers are divisible by either 3 or 6. Choice (2)

5.

Except bat, all the others are birds.

6.

Except IT, all the other pairs are opposite letters. Choice (3)

x2 + 1

185

36 X3 + 3

X5 + 5

1302 X7 + 7

14331

X11 + 9

∴ Next term in the series is 14331. Choice (1)

Choice (4)

11. According to the given information, we can compare their heights as follows. A > B, C > D > B E is the second tallest and E > C, hence we get the following arrangement. A>E>C>D>B ∴ C is the third tallest person. Choice (4) 12. From the word CONSULTATION, the word STATUS cannot be formed using each letter not more than the number of times it appears in the word. Choice (3) 13. Word – P O

W

E

R

S

Logic – P

O

W

E R

S

O ↓ Code – L

P E ↓ ↓ K V

W S ↓ ↓ D H

Solutions for questions 7 to 25: 7.

The order of the given words as per the dictionary is 4, 3, 1, 2. Choice (3)

8.

Given series is an alternate series. Logic is as follows: For the consonant → next consonant

46 April 2022

11

10. As per the given information, we get the following arrangement. (4) → Seetha (6) Harsha (6) Sparsha ← (5) Thirteen persons sit between Seetha and Sparsha. ∴ Harsha is 13th from the right end of the row. Choice (3)

Similarly,

5



R ↓ I (Opposite pairs)

Similarly, CAREER is coded as ZXVIIV. Choice (2)

MOCK TEST PAPER: SSC CGLE (Tier-I) 14. Given expression is

⇒

Solutions 19. Given figure is labelled as follows.

5 + 14 – 192 ÷ 12 × 16 = 60

By interchanging the signs + and × the equation becomes correct.

5 × 14 – 192 ÷ 12 + 16 = 60.

Choice (2)

d

b

a

c

e

f g

k

h i

j

15. It is given that , 3 # 5 = 118, 7 # 2 = –79 Logic ⇒ 35 – 53 = 118

⇒

72 – 27 = –79

∴ 6 # 2 = 6 – 2 = –28. 2

Choice (1)

6

16. Given logic is as follows. a

b



c

d



a3 = bcd 63 = 216

Single triangles → a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h, k, j = 10 Combination of two triangles → b + d, c + e, d + e, a + b=4 Combination of three triangles → a + b + d, a + b + c, k +c+e=3 Total triangles formed in the given figure are 17. Choice (1)

20.

83 = 512

∴ Missing number is 5.

a

Choice (2)

A



House A’s house is situated in the south-east direction from his initial position.

Choice (2)

b

Total students µ = 64, n = 6 = students who failed in both the subjects Student who passed in both the subjects = µ – n = 64 – 6 = 58 Students who passed in mathematics = 58 – 44 + 18 = 32. Choice (3)

21. Answer Figure (4) will complete the pattern given in the Question figure. Choice (4) 22. Question Figure is embedded in the answer figure (1). Choice (1)

18.

Peacocks



18

Chemistry = 44 n=6

17. Given path is as follows.



µ = 64

Maths = 32

Similarly

Hens

23. When unfolding the paper, it appears as follows.

Rabbits From the above basic diagram

Choice (3)



Conclusion I, affirmative, does not follow.



Conclusion II, affirmative, does not follow.

24. If a mirror is placed on the line CQ, the image formed will be Answer Figure (2). Choice (2)



Neither I nor II follows.

25. The correct set for the code of the word ‘HORSE’ is 67,

Choice (3)

96, 42, 85, 88. Choice (3)

April 2022

47

MOCK TEST PAPER: SSC CGLE (Tier-I)

Solutions

TEST–II: General Awareness 26. 3

31. 3

36. 1

41. 4

46. 1

27. 3

32. 2

37. 3

42. 4

47. 4

28. 4

33. 2

38. 1

43. 4

48. 4

29. 4

34. 4

39. 1

44. 3

49. 4

30. 1

35. 2

40. 4

45. 1

50. 3

TEST–III: Quantitative Aptitude Solutions for questions 51 to 75:

59. Interest for three years = 740 – 500 = 240

51. cot6 θ – cosec6 θ + 3cosec2 θ cot2 θ = (cot2 θ – cosec2 θ)3 = –(cosec2 θ – cot2 θ)3 = –1 Choice (1) 52. a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca =

((a – b)2 + (b – c)2 + (c – a)2

1002 + 1032 + 1052 – 100 × 103 – 103 × 105 – 100 × 105 =

((100 – 103)2 + (103 – 105)2 + (100 – 105)2

=

(9 + 4 + 25) = 19. Choice (4)

53.

= =

=

= 80

Rate of interest per annum =

× 100% = 16%

Rate of interest after decrease = 16% – 6% = 10% P = 500 × 1.1 × 1.1 = 605. Choice (1) 60. Total work = LCM of 10, 20, and 30 = 60 units Per day work done by A, B, and C is 6 units, 3 units, and 2 units, respectively. Work done by P, Q, and R in three days = 11 units Work done by 15 days = 5(11) = 55 Remaining work is completed by P in

. Choice (1)

54. It is given that 5(1 + k%):8(1 – 10%) = 5:6 ⇒ 100 + k = 120 ⇒ k = 20. Choice (4) 55. Age of the wicket-keeper = 25 + 3 = 28 Let the average age of the team be x years 11x – 9(x – 1) = (25 + 28) = 53 2x = 44 ⇒ x = 22 years.

Interest for one year =

days.

Total number of days that P worked = 5 days. Choice (2) 61. abc (4 – d) + bcd (4 – a) + cda (4 – b) + dab (4 – c) + 4abcd (4abc – abcd) + (4bcd – abcd) + (4cda – abcd) + (4dab – abcd) + 4abcd = 4(abc + bcd + cda + dab) – 4abcd + 4abcd = 4(2) = 8. Choice (3)

Choice (3)

62. Ratio of the base radius and the height of the cone C = 4:3 Slant height = =5

Area of the path = = 2400 m2 It is given that ((70 + 2(10)) (b + 2(10)) – 70b) = 2400 b = 30 m Required value = 30 × 70 = 2100 m2. Choice (1)

Ratio of the base radius and the height of the cone D = 3:4 Slant height = =5

56. Let b cm be the breadth of the park.

57. 20% of 130 = 26 Required answer is R. Choice (4) 58. Compound ratio of a:b and a:c = a2:bc Inverse ratio of a2:bc = bc:a2.

48 April 2022

Choice (2)

Lateral surface area = πrl As there is no change in the slant height and as there is a decrease in the radius by 25%, the lateral surface area is decreased by 25%. Choice (1) 63. cos (65° – θ) = sin (90° – (65°– θ)) = sin (25°+ θ) sec (65° – θ) = sec (90° – (65° – θ)) = cosec (25° + θ)

MOCK TEST PAPER: SSC CGLE (Tier-I)

Solutions

=

71. Required answer =

=

=



=

. Choice (1)

64. LCM of 5, 6 and 7 = 210 Let total number of articles be 210x. Total cost price of articles = 210x (

Total selling price of articles = 2 × 210 x ( Overall gain =

ab = 120 ⇒ ab = 240 a + b = (60 –c) Squaring on both the sides, we get a2 + b2 + 2ab = 3600 + c2 – 120c 2ab = 3600 – 120c ⇒ 480 = 3600 – 120c ⇒ 120c = 3120 ⇒ c = 26 cm. Choice (3)

) = 6500x ) = 8400x

× 100% = 29.23%. Choice (2)

65. 25% of (120 + 140) = 65 S in 2015 and 2016 = 30 + 35 = 65 Required answer is S. Choice (3)

73.



66.

= tan (45° – A) tan (45° – A) = cot 3A = tan (90° – 3A) ⇒ 45° – A = 90° – 3A ⇒ 2A = 45° A = 22

=

=

=

= =

=

⇒ =

⇒

=

Choice (1)

67. Perfect squares that divide N completely are 5 , 5 , 5 , 5 , 58, 510, and 512. Required answer = 7. Choice (2) 4

k⇒k=

Area of right-angled triangle XYZ =

(XY) × (YZ)

(YP) × (XZ)

⇒ 2k × k = YP ×

k⇒

= YP

=

=

Choice (3)

69. Required ratio = (30 + 12 + 35 + 25):(28 + 30 + 35 + 19) = 102:112 = 51:56. Choice (1) 70. Speed of train A = 72 kmph = 20 m/s Speed of train B = 108 kmph = 30 m/s Length of train A = 20 × 10 = 200 Length of train B = 30 × 8 = 240 Required time =

75.

=

Choice (2)

+ =

⇒ (3a + b)x + (a + 3b) = 5 On comparing x-coefficient 3a + b = 0 ---(1) On comparing constants a + 3b = 5 ---(2) a+b=

.

× 100% = 15.38%.

By solving equations (1) and (2), we get a =

ZPY is a right-angled triangle, ZP =

For R,

6

68. XY:YZ = 2:1 ⇒ XY = 2k, and YZ = k ⇒ XZ = =

× 100% = 108 %

Similarly

. Choice (3) 2

× 100% = 56.25%

For Q =

=

⇒

0

=

°.

74. For P =

=

Choice (4)

72. Let a, b, and c be the sides where c is hypotenuse. c2 = a2 + b2 a + b + c = 60

+

= 6.

= 34 seconds. Choice (1)

+

=

=

,b=

.

Alternative solution: =

+

Put x + 3 = 0 to get the value of a, x = –3 a=

=

Put 3x + 1 =0 to get the value of b, x = – b= a+b=

= +

=

= =

.

Choice (4)

April 2022

49

MOCK TEST PAPER: SSC CGLE (Tier-I)

Solutions

TEST–IV: English Comprehension Solutions for questions 76 and 77: 76. ‘Caprice’ means a ‘sudden change in attitude or behaviour for no obvious reason’. The appropriate synonym is ‘whim’. ‘Unction’ refers to ‘an act in a religious ceremony’. ‘Prudence’ means ‘sensibility and carefulness’. ‘Patriarchy’ means ‘a society or a country ruled or dominated by men’. The correct option is (4). Choice (4) 77. ‘Extermination’ is a synonym of ‘annihilation’; both mean ‘destruction’. ‘Pandemonium’ refers to a state of ‘utter disharmony’. ‘Disarray’ refers to a state of being ‘disorganised’. ‘Determination’ is ‘willpower’. Choice (2) Solutions for question 78: 78. ‘Cower’ means ‘to shrink with fear’. ‘Cringe’ also means the same. ‘Challenge’ means ‘to dare’. This is the right choice. ‘Smother’ is to ‘suffocate’. ‘Blush’ is to become ‘red in the face’ with shame or embarrassment. Choice (1) Solutions for question 79: 79. ‘Dilapidated’ is the right option.

Choice (2)

Solutions for questions 80 to 82: 80. Choice 3 is the answer because part 3 is erroneous. A preposition 'to' should be used before 'this': “I’d like you to listen to this.” Choice (3) 81. Choice 3 is the answer. In the case of the verb ‘explain’, ‘suggest’ or ‘describe’, a direct object comes first and then an indirect object after the verb. Explain what – must come first. The corrected sentence is ‘Let us ask him to explain his decision to us’. Choice (3) 82. Choice 3 is the answer. The error is in part (3). We obey someone or something. Therefore, it must be ‘… students obey rules’. Choice (3) Solutions for questions 83 to 85: 83. Choice 4 is the answer. ‘But’ is the appropriate preposition. When the reference is to two contradicting issues or persons, then ‘but’ is the appropriate conjunction. Choice (4) 84. The reference is to a specific time (a period), hence, ‘in’ is the right choice to connect the act of roaming and the stage of childhood. Choice (3)

50 April 2022

85. The sentence is negative. The clue words are ‘painful’, and ‘out of control’. They imply ‘family fights’, hence, ‘conflicts’ is the answer. The other words are unsuitable in the given context. Choice (3) Solutions for questions 86 and 87: 86. When we ‘take something to the heart’, we become ‘upset’. We take something seriously. Choice (2) 87. When one is plain, frank, and ‘honest’, one ‘puts one’s cards on the table’. Choice (4) Solutions for questions 88 to 90: 88. ‘Belligerent’ people have a quarrelsome nature. People who are ‘haughty’ are arrogant. A ‘propitious’ moment is a ‘favourable’ time. Something ‘salubrious’ is ‘good for health’. Choice (3) 89. Choice 4 is the answer. ‘Salvo’ is the correct choice. ‘Salver’ is a ‘plate’ or ‘tray’. ‘Salve’ refers to a ‘soothing agent’ such as an ointment. ‘Samba’ refers to a ‘form of dance’. Choice (4) 90. ‘Surveillance’ is the correct choice. ‘Supervision’ is used in the context of ‘management’. ‘Servitude’ is a state of ‘slavery’. ’Reconnaissance’ is a ‘survey taken to study the military operations of another country’. Choice (2) Solutions for questions 91 to 93: 91. The simple present tense is used to express future events but that must be part of a fixed timetable/programme. For example, '… starts at 6.30 pm’ or 'The train leaves at 5.20'. But with adverbs like 'tomorrow', 'tonight', and 'next week',though the future action is planned, we use the present continuous, simple future, or the future continuous. Hence, the correct tense to be used here is 'will be visiting' or 'is visiting' or 'will visit'. Choice (3) 92. Two actions are given and it is clear that one happened 'before' the other. The earlier action always takes the use of the past perfect and the latter one uses the simple past. Hence, the correct option is 'had started'. Choice (2) 93. Interrogative sentences must use ‘auxiliary verb’. The given sentence is in the past tense. When converted into a question, the verb is divided into two (i.e.,) ‘went’ becomes did + go, where the auxiliary verb denotes the tense. This question must take a past tense verb, which is 'did you go'. Choice (3)

MOCK TEST PAPER: SSC CGLE (Tier-I) Solutions for questions 94 and 95: 94. The underscored part has a verb structure that agrees with the number of the subject. ‘Refugees’ is plural, hence, ‘have’ is correct. Choice (4) 95. ‘No longer’ is the correct comparative term to be used in the sentence to refer to the changed state of affairs. Choice (3) Solutions for questions 96 to 100: 96. Choice 1 is the answer. The passage is on how various processes lead to the erosion of coral reefs. As part of the discussion, the author, in the middle of the passage, mentions ‘sea urchin’ as an agent of erosion at an annual rate exceeding 20 kg/m2. The other choices are either insufficient or distorted: the information in choices 2 and 3 are not supported by the passage. Since the specific information is not given in choice 4, it is eliminated. Choice (1) 97. Choice 2 is the answer. Refer to the second sentence of the passage. The words "boring", "drilling", "rasping", and "scraping" variously refer to the mechanisms of bioerosion, but "annexing" means "adding", hence it is the odd one out, and is the answer.. Choice (2) 98. Choice 2 is the answer. Refer to the first sentence of the passage. The other choices are not supported by the passage. They are either false, unstated, or distorted: choice 1 is incorrect because the passage does not

Solutions mention that bioerosion is harmful to humans. The content in choice 3 is not supported by the passage: ‘more impact on the ocean floor’ cannot be established with the information in the passage. Similarly, since controlling bioerosion is not discussed in the passage, choice 4 is incorrect. Choice 5 is incorrect because the passage in the sentence “bioerosion is a reduction in the hard ocean substrates….fish” suggests that bioerosion takes place in the depths of the ocean. Choice (2) 99. Choice 2 is the answer. Choice 1 is close, but the core discussion ‘erosion’ is not discussed. Choice 3 is eliminated because bioeroders are not the topic. However, they are mentioned in the discussion of natural processes of erosion that happen to coral reefs. Choice 4 is out of the topic. Choice (2) 100. Choice 2 is the answer. This sentence ‘Bioerosion of coral reefs generates the fine and white coral sand characteristic of tropical islands’ supports the answer. . The word ‘abrasion’, meaning ‘scrape’ or ‘cut’, defines the process of generating the fine and white coral sand. Choice 1,‘coagulation’ means ‘thickening’ and thus, it is unsuitable. Choice 3 is unsuitable because ‘assimilation’ is ‘digestion’ or ‘incorporation’. Choice 4, ‘clubbing’ has multiple meanings; one is the ‘enlargement of fingernails’ while another is ‘the activity of going to entertainment clubs’ Choice (2) CAC

Important Note: This mock paper will be available in online mode on TIME4BANK Exams App from 20 March 2022 onwards. You can take this test in the online mode on the App.

April 2022

51

Inspiration

Perspectives

O

ne day a father took his young son on a trip to the country with the

firm purpose to show him how poor people can be. They spent a day and a night in the farm of a very poor family. When they got back from their trip the father asked his son, “How was the trip?” “Very good, Dad!” “Did you see how poor people can be?” the father asked. “Yeah!” “And what did you learn?” The son answered, “I saw that we have a dog at home, and they have four. We have a pool that reaches to the middle of the garden, they have a creek that has no end. We have imported lamps in the garden, they have the stars. Our patio reaches to the front yard, they have a whole horizon.” When the little boy was finishing, his father was speechless. His son added, “Thanks, Dad, for showing me how poor we are!” Isn’t it true that it all depends on the way you look at things? If you have love, friends, family, health, good humour and a positive attitude toward life, you’ve got everything! You can’t buy any of these things. You can have all the material possessions you can imagine, provisions for the future, etc., but if you are poor of spirit, you have nothing!

52 April 2022

CAC